Office_Shredder said:
This is false. If your order is marketable they are required to execute it immediately.
First off, it's not really your order that executes - it's the broker's. The broker has a fiduciary duty to make your order match theirs.
The legal penalty for not honoring that duty of immediacy is not a robust enough guarantee that it will be honored when the profit of essentially lying about it and profiting in the margin of time between when you as an investor made the order and when your personal finances reflect the order's execution is so enormous compared to the penalty.
Office_Shredder said:
Right, so if you want to sell it now, you get the current price.
"If" does a remarkable amount of work in this sentence.
Office_Shredder said:
If it's non marketable, they are required to post it on an exchange, unless it's "block size" (feel free to disapprove of the block size rule, I'm not attached to it).
The issue isn't even them shirking the requirements - the problem is actually that time exists.
You cannot have an instantaneous exchange. Physics itself prevents this. Law does not supersede physics.
Even in the best case scenario, where every rule is followed to the best of the market maker's reasonable ability there is a period of time during which the transaction is pending - economic theory, especially neoclassical, has a
very difficult time handling... well, time. So difficult in fact that one of the primary criticisms of the EMH is that
not only does it require universality of simultaneity, which anyone on this forum should know is untenable, but it also requires that all market actors have instantaneous and universally simultaneous access to market information.
Another big problem is the EMH is circular logic in even its weak form, and yet another is that its foundations fundamentally do not accommodate the very real nature of error propagation, but the EMH is a whole other can of worms.
Office_Shredder said:
The settlement period of two days has no economic effect on the trade that you get.
You're right, I should have been more clear that I meant mostly the time it will take to transact, but settlement requires that asset exchanges be fully completed by that time - even honoring that cannot in and of itself guarantee that what occurred to the assets between the order and the settlement was only the relevant exchange. The economic effects on you are minimal
during the settlement period, because the abuses I'm talking about there occur on a literally minute-to-minute basis before the settlement period even starts.
Office_Shredder said:
If they choose to internalize your transaction it's because they think it's a good trade, not because they want to manipulate the price.
Ultimately I think the problem here is assuming that their motives are the same as those of an individual doing their personal accounting, just at a larger scale.
The problem with this assumption is the motives are not scale invariant - if you are one of these big players, the fact that you internalizing can manipulate the price means that it is a tool you would be highly motivated to use... because the money from the market itself, even if you lose out on that internalization, is absolutely miniscule compared to the money you can make on the derivatives market from the price change itself.
Office_Shredder said:
When it a market maker receives your order, if they route out to them market they are required to give the fills they get to you.
This process is not instantaneous - the wiggle room is miniscule but it exists, and it's the reason HFT is algorithmic and highly affected by literally the geographical proximity to the exchange for simple physics latency reasons (a factor that all by itself would destroy the EMH provided the market and the transactor are located at non-identical points in space and therefore not both in violation of the Pauli exclusion principle).
Office_Shredder said:
So if you send an order to sell and they send a sell order to a dark pool to see if they get filled as part of handling your order, they have to give you the fill they get.
In 2 days from the order. If this were always honored, FTDs would not exist. Curiously, they do.
Office_Shredder said:
This is not true at all. All trades are required to be reported immediately upon execution, you can't wait.
I'm not talking about time between execution and report, I'm talking about the time between order and execution.
Office_Shredder said:
Payment for order flow is where they pay to get your order so they can make money by trading against you, because on average retail traders do not make money.
You've mistaken a consequence for a cause.
Office_Shredder said:
Market maker internalization is a competitive business. Citadel, virtu and other companies give price improvement to the orders they receive (that is, give people a better price than that market on average), and whoever gives the most price improvement gets the most flow from the retail broker.
I'm not remotely arguing that these entities are not competing with each other.
There's a surprising amount one can accomplish collectively if the competition has certain constraints, however.
Office_Shredder said:
Separately, Claiming anything in this industry is unregulated is kind of absurd, all that parties here are large finra regulated broker dealers.
FINRA is a private organization, not a publicly funded agency -
it has been genuinely illegal for the government to regulate the derivatives markets since 2000.
FINRA is, of course, trusted to regulate itself.
Office_Shredder said:
This isn't true, every trade of any size is reported on the tape. You're probably thinking of the fact that odd lot *quotes* are not reported to the SIP, but they still show up in the exchanges' proprietary marketdata which many professionals pay for, so a lot of people know about the quotes anyway (that said, the sec is considering making odd lot quotes show up in the SIP feed).
Did you miss the part where I said "public" representation? If you have to pay to access the data, it is not public.
Office_Shredder said:
But not like, forty dollars different in a hundred dollar stock. We're talking about like pennies different.
Uh huh. We
are talking about pennies of difference - but pennies of difference across the entire publicly traded economy does not add up to pennies of difference total. This is why the motives are not scale invariant: having access to huge chunks of the market makes those pennies an enormous potential source of revenue, at the expense of anyone using a broker to invest.
Office_Shredder said:
No, liquid means liquid. It means your can get the cash when you want it for whatever you want it.
The logical construction of these two sentences is "Not A, because B = B implies B = C."
Even ignoring A (my statement), the issue I'm taking is with B's relationship to C not being unequivocally true. Using liquid to describe cash is not the same thing as the word "liquid" being synonymous with "cash". This is why I made the distinction earlier between the common definition of "liquid" in personal finance (i.e. accounting) being importantly different from its meaning in the context of an asset exchange.
Technically speaking, the asset itself is never liquid in the overall market sense - the exchanges of the asset are, and it can depend on which direction the exchange is relative to the asset. For instance, the obtaining of a cash asset in exchange for something else is considered far more illiquid than the obtaining of a non-cash asset (or good or service) in exchange for cash. The liquidity isn't the amount of cash exchanged, it's basically the odds of the exchange actually being completed. And yes, making those odds worse does tend to increase the required volume of cash assets, and making those odds better does tend to decrease the required volume of cash, but this is a function of the relative liquidity of cash transactions
tending to exceed everything else - it is neither an intrinsic property of money nor exclusive to money.
Ironically, much like the EMH, it is entirely dependent on real market activity and thus by necessity a post-hoc measurement - it pretends time does not exist.
Office_Shredder said:
If you bought gme for 200, and today you want to buy a house, or you want to buy a car, or pay for your kid's college, you simply do not have the same amount of money to pay for those things.
Again, "if" does a lot of work here - at least this time it's helped out by some other hypotheticals that would be relevant to liquidity if their own "if"s were true.
Not being able to trade a stock for a car (in theory this is not preventable; barter is still both legal and common) doesn't make the stock illiquid - just because local currency is usually the most liquid asset does not mean currency
is liquidity.
Office_Shredder said:
That's the definition of liquidity, and why people want liquid assets, so they can pay for things.
People want their assets to be movable when they move those assets - it does not mean that the definition of motion is "the thing that is easy to move most of the time".
Office_Shredder said:
I'm sorry, you don't actually know very much about how the industry works.
Perhaps, but I think this has more to do with how little I believe what the industry says about itself.
Ultimately, the thesis of holding GME is basically a hedge against the legitimacy of the market and financial system itself. If the short positions were closed, those holding GME are more likely to forget that they hold GME than sell for a loss. The position is, in essence, "don't sell GME for a loss regardless of how long that takes", which is why even if the short positions
were closed last January, it's difficult not to see this as something of a self-fulfilling prophecy given enough time. If holders believe (rather reasonably, given their assets and nonexistent debt, IMO) that GameStop is not actually in danger of bankruptcy, and they are not in immediate need of the funds spent on the stock, they don't need to exchange anything - the longer their strategy takes, the more risky
any short position - even entirely backed and legal ones - becomes.
The risk to a short position is theoretically infinite - the risk to a naked short of a company exceeding the available shares if that company does not go out of business is
also theoretically infinite.
The realization of that risk must, mathematically, always be to the disadvantage of retail investors, because otherwise market makers and brokers become an existential threat to both each other and themselves. If FINRA wants a cut of the profits as a fine, they're happy to oblige - just a cost of doing business.
I'd like to remind you that XRT is basically a tradable
index fund for the entertainment industry EDIT: I was wrong, it's even worse - it's
broader than that. Do you really think market makers, brokers, and banks following FINRA rules as if they took precedence over the laws of physics would mean that shorting an index fund for 7.15 times the volume of the fund itself is "business as usual, everything normal, nothing to see"?
Because that was
last Friday.