Why do sine and cosine have different x intercept patterns?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the properties of sine and cosine functions, specifically their x-intercepts and the underlying reasons for their differing patterns. Participants are exploring the mathematical relationships and definitions associated with these trigonometric functions.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are questioning why sine has x-intercepts at multiples of pi while cosine has intercepts at odd multiples of pi/2. There are attempts to connect these intercepts to the definitions and properties of the functions.

Discussion Status

The conversation is ongoing, with various interpretations being explored. Some participants are providing insights into the definitions of pi and the historical context of trigonometric functions, while others are seeking clarification on the mathematical reasoning behind the x-intercepts.

Contextual Notes

Some participants mention the importance of understanding the unit circle and the definitions of trigonometric functions, indicating a possible gap in foundational knowledge that may affect the discussion.

mr.me
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hi everyone. Not really a homework question but I'm trying to teach myself trig and I wonder

Why does a sine graph have x intercepts in multiples of pi and why does a cosine graph have intercepts pi/2
 
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Well sine of pi radians is 0 (x-int). Cosine of pi/2 is 0
 
So since sin(pi)= 0 then it is graphed as a ([itex]\pi[/itex],0) intercept for every integer of pi?

If that's so then why does sin(pi)=zero?
 
mr.me said:
So since sin(pi)= 0 then it is graphed as a ([itex]\pi[/itex],0) intercept for every integer of pi?

If that's so then why does sin(pi)=zero?

Have you seen the circle representation of trigonometric values?
 
mr.me said:
So since sin(pi)= 0 then it is graphed as a ([itex]\pi[/itex],0) intercept for every integer of pi?

If that's so then why does sin(pi)=zero?

[itex]\pi[/itex] is in radians and in degrees it is 180o.
sin 180o = sin(90+90)o = cos 90o = 0.
 
You're going to to come across the definition of [itex]\pi[/itex] sooner or later, so here is is: [itex]\pi[/itex] is the smallest positive number such that:
[tex] \cos\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right) =0[/tex]
 
[tex]cos(x)= - sin(x- \pi/2)[/tex]
 
mr.me said:
hi everyone. Not really a homework question but I'm trying to teach myself trig and I wonder

Why does a sine graph have x intercepts in multiples of pi and why does a cosine graph have intercepts pi/2

If you really want to learn trig, you need to study the various ways that the sine wave can be generated. Once you do that, it's (1) obvious what the answer to your question is and (2) easier to understand trig in general.
 
hunt_mat said:
You're going to to come across the definition of [itex]\pi[/itex] sooner or later, so here is is: [itex]\pi[/itex] is the smallest positive number such that:
[tex] \cos\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right) =0[/tex]

Huh? I though the definition of pi was the ratio of the circumference of a circle to its diameter. Trig has nothing to do with it.
 
  • #10
There generally are many different ways to define a specifice thing.
 
  • #11
HallsofIvy said:
There generally are many different ways to define a specifice thing.

Yes, certainly, but I had the impression that the ratio definition of pi was made before anyone had ever invented trig and that it is in some sense a "fundamental" definition and that while there may be others that happen to be factually correct, they are unnecessary and happened after the fact.
 
  • #12
phinds said:
Yes, certainly, but I had the impression that the ratio definition of pi was made before anyone had ever invented trig and that it is in some sense a "fundamental" definition and that while there may be others that happen to be factually correct, they are unnecessary and happened after the fact.
Why do you believe in some sort of historical evaluative primacy of definitions??

There are very good reasons, for example, why a base definition of sine&cosine in terms of the solutions of a specific eigenvalue problem is more interesting than the historically first definition of them.
 
  • #13
arildno said:
Why do you believe in some sort of historical evaluative primacy of definitions??

Actually, I don't as a rule, especially since sometimes a better understanding of a phenomenon leads to a better definition, but somehow in this particular case it just seems like a more fundamenal definition that cannot be bettered.

There are very good reasons, for example, why a base definition of sine&cosine in terms of the solutions of a specific eigenvalue problem is more interesting than the historically first definition of them.

I can't agrue with that because my math is gone (not that I would necessarily want to argue with it anyway) but I don't understand what that has to do with the ratio definition of pi, especially in light of the fact that you are talking about trig functions and I don't see how they are needed or helpful in defining pi. VALID, I can see, but better, I cannot.
 
  • #14
phinds said:
Huh? I though the definition of pi was the ratio of the circumference of a circle to its diameter. Trig has nothing to do with it.
I learned the definition in my analysis course at university.
 

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