Why do the X, Y, Z operators switch parity?

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The discussion centers on the behavior of parity switching operators, specifically the X operator, in quantum mechanics. It explains that when an operator like X, which switches parity, is applied between two wave functions of opposite parity, the result is zero due to the nature of even and odd functions. The participants explore the mathematical representation of these operators in Cartesian coordinates, noting that even-parity wave functions are symmetric about the x-axis. The conclusion drawn is that the X operator transforms even functions into odd ones and vice versa, leading to the zero result when integrating an odd function over a symmetric interval. Understanding this parity behavior is crucial for grasping selection rules in quantum mechanics.
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I'm reading about selection rules, and the book is talking about how if you have a parity switching operator in between two wave vectors of opposite (definite) parity, the result is 0. For example, we have

\left\langle2,0,0 \right|\hat{X}\left|2,0,0\right\rangle = 0 because \left|2,0,0\right\rangle is of even parity, and X switches its parity (where these kets are the hydrogen wave functions). Then, we have an even parity bra with an odd parity ket, and the result is 0.

My question is, why do these operators switch parity? I'd love to have both a physical and mathematical reason.

Thanks!
 
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Think about the representation of these operators in the position basis.
 
Ben Niehoff said:
Think about the representation of these operators in the position basis.

Hmm...I mean, we have the radial function, and the spherical harmonics...sorry, I'm not seeing it :(
 
Use Cartesian coordinates instead of spherical. What does an even-parity wavefunction look like? What is the X operator in this basis?
 
Ben Niehoff said:
Use Cartesian coordinates instead of spherical. What does an even-parity wavefunction look like? What is the X operator in this basis?

I guess an even-parity wavefunction is symmetric over the x axis? And, as far as I know, the X operator in Cartesian coordinates is just x.

I mean, I think I have the basic idea. I know that that on some level it's essentially integrating an odd function from -a to a, which will always be 0.

Actually, I think I have it. These wave functions are always even or odd. So x turns an odd function into an even one, or an even one into an odd one.
 
Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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