Why Do These Complex Contour Integrals Equal Zero?

Join the discussion
Ask a follow-up here, or get your own question answered by working scientists, mathematicians and engineers — people, not an autocomplete.
Real named experts · corrections over time · the nuance an AI answer skips
2 replies · 3K views
Messages
665
Reaction score
68

Homework Statement



Calculate the following line integrals from point z'=(0,-1) to z"=(0,1) along three different contours, [itex]C_j=(0,1,2)[/itex].

[tex]\int_{C_j}|z|dz[/tex]

where [itex]C_0[/itex] is the straight line along the y-axis, [itex]C_1[/itex] is the right semi-circular contour of radius 1, and [itex]C_2[/itex] is the left semi-circular contour of radius 1.

The Attempt at a Solution



(i) Along [itex]C_0[/itex], [tex]z=iy \implies dz = idy[/tex] and the integral is

[tex]\int_{C_0}|z|dz=i^2 \int_{-1}^1ydy=-\frac{y^2}{2}|_{-1}^1=-\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{2}=0[/tex](ii) Along [itex]C_1[/itex], [itex]z=re^{i \theta} \implies dz = ire^{i \theta}d \theta[/tex] with [itex]\theta:\frac{3 \pi}{2} \rightarrow \frac{\pi}{2}[/itex]. Note that r=1.<br /> <br /> So, [tex]\int_{C_1}|z|dz = ir^2\int_{\frac{3 \pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}e^{2i \theta}d \theta=\frac{1}{2}e^{2 i \theta}|_{\frac{3 \pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}=\frac{1}{2} ( e^{i \pi}-e^{3i \pi})=0[/tex](iii) Along [itex]C_2[/itex], [tex]z=re^{i \theta} \implies dz = ire^{i \theta}d \theta[/tex] with [itex]\theta:-\frac{\pi}{2} \rightarrow \frac{\pi}{2}[/itex].<br /> <br /> The integral is similar to (ii), and one obtains:<br /> <br /> [tex]\frac{1}{2} ( e^{i \pi}-e^{-i \pi})=0[/tex]<br /> <br /> Did I do these integrals correctly (correct limits in ii and iii)? If so then geometrically, why are these integrals equal to zero?<br /> <br /> Thanks for your comments.[/itex]
 
Physics news on Phys.org
For (ii) and (iii), don't forget that you are integrating |z|, not z.

The point of the problem is to show you that the path integral does depend on the path you choose. You will see later that the value of a path integral is independent of the path if a function is holomorphic. That is because holomorphic functions have antiderivatives. It's the same theorem as in multivariable calculus, when you learned that the value of a path integral over a vector field depends only on the start and end points if the vector field is the gradient of a function.

In this example, the value of the integrals does depend on the path because |z| is not holomorphic.
 
Last edited:
oops forgot i was integrating |z|..i fixed (ii) quickly and got an answer of 2i, is that correct?

[tex] \int_{C_1}|z|dz = ir^2\int_{\frac{3 \pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}e^{i \theta}d \theta=i [sin(\theta)-icos(\theta)]|_{\frac{3 \pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}=2i[/tex]
 
Last edited: