Why does a pendulum overshoot equilibrium

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a pendulum released from a height and the dynamics of its motion as it oscillates through the equilibrium point where the resultant force is considered to be zero. Participants are exploring the concepts of inertia and Newton's laws in the context of pendulum motion.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the application of Newton's first law and the role of inertia in the pendulum's motion. There are questions about the definition of equilibrium and whether the pendulum can be considered in equilibrium at the lowest point of its swing.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided guidance on how to structure a response to the homework question, while others are questioning the assumptions made about the forces acting on the pendulum at equilibrium. There is an acknowledgment of differing terminology preferences, such as the use of "inertia" versus "momentum."

Contextual Notes

There is a discussion about the accuracy of the question regarding the forces acting on the pendulum, particularly at the equilibrium position, and whether it is appropriate to describe the pendulum as being in equilibrium at that point.

jsmith613
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Homework Statement


"A pendulum is released from a height of h metres. At the equilibrium point the resultant force on the pendulum is zero. Explain why the pendulum continues to oscillate in spite of this" [3 marks]

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution




So I presume that it had something to do with the inertia of the pendulum (i.e: Newtons first law). But I don't know how to correctly phrase the 3-mark answer. Could someone please help.

Thanks
 
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hi jsmith613! :smile:
jsmith613 said:
"A pendulum is released from a height of h metres. At the equilibrium point the resultant force on the pendulum is zero. Explain why the pendulum continues to oscillate in spite of this" [3 marks]

So I presume that it had something to do with the inertia of the pendulum (i.e: Newtons first law). But I don't know how to correctly phrase the 3-mark answer.

well, there's at least 1 mark for actually writing out Newton's first law! :biggrin:

then i suppose 1 mark for applying it to the particular case …

and maybe 1 mark for doing it in tolerable english :rolleyes:

also, since the question says "oscillate", which means going backward and forward, you'd better say something about that too

btw, is this an ordinary swinging pendulum?

if so, the question is wrong, the resultant force is non-zero since it has to equal … ? :smile:
 
tiny-tim said:
hi jsmith613! :smile:


well, there's at least 1 mark for actually writing out Newton's first law! :biggrin:

then i suppose 1 mark for applying it to the particular case …

and maybe 1 mark for doing it in tolerable english :rolleyes:

also, since the question says "oscillate", which means going backward and forward, you'd better say something about that too

btw, is this an ordinary swinging pendulum?

if so, the question is wrong, the resultant force is non-zero since it has to equal … ? :smile:


so would this answer work

Newton's First law states that a body will remain in a state of uniform motion unless an external resultant force acts. At all times, the resultant force acts towards the equilibrium position. As the pendulum approaches this position, it accelerates towards the equlibrium position so it speeds up. At equilibrium EXACTLY no force acts on the pendulum BUT the body still has inertia so continues to move.
At maximum amplitude the body has zero inertia but maximum acceleration. This causes the body to move back to equilibrium and hence oscillate

Do you think this would get 3 marks?
 
personally, i hate the word "inertia", i use momentum (or velocity as appropriate)

but if your professor uses it, then you'd better copy him!​

apart from that, it looks ok :smile:
 
tiny-tim said:
personally, i hate the word "inertia", i use momentum (or velocity as appropriate)

but if your professor uses it, then you'd better copy him!​

apart from that, it looks ok :smile:

ok how is this:Newton's First law states that a body will remain in a state of uniform motion unless an external resultant force acts.
At all times, the resultant force acts towards the equilibrium position. As the pendulum approaches this position, it accelerates towards the equlibrium position so it speeds up.

At equilibrium EXACTLY no force acts on the pendulum BUT the body still has momentum (which is conserved if not external forces act on the system, as at equilibrium) so continues to move.

At maximum amplitude the body has no momentum as the restoring force is acting to reduce the momentumof the body but the body has maximum acceleration. This causes the body to move back to equilibrium and hence oscillate
 
looks ok :smile:

(except you might reconsider the word "as" near the end)
 
tiny-tim said:
looks ok :smile:

(except you might reconsider the word "as" near the end)

:) thanks
 
What still needs to be resolved , however, is that is not correct to say that the pendulum is in equilibrium at the bottom of the swing, since it is being acted on by a net centripetal force. The forces acting on it in the vertical direction are non zero . Once released, it is never in equilibrium until a damping force or other externally applied force brings it to a halt.
 

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