Why Does Boundedness of a Function Affect Its Oscillation?

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the relationship between the boundedness of a function and its oscillation. It establishes that if a function f is bounded by M, then the oscillation of its square, ω(f²,[a,b]), is less than or equal to 2M times the oscillation of f, ω(f,[a,b]). Additionally, it addresses the case where f is bounded below by a positive number m, proving that the oscillation of the reciprocal function, ω(1/f,[a,b]), is less than or equal to the oscillation of f divided by m². The participants suggest analyzing the oscillation by breaking it into cases based on the signs of the supremum and infimum of f.

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Arkuski
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Suppose that [itex]f[/itex] is bounded by [itex]M[/itex]. Prove that [itex]ω(f^2,[a,b])≤2Mω(f,[a,b])[/itex].

I can show that [itex]ω(f,[a,b])≤2M[/itex] and that [itex]ω(f^2,[a,b])≤M^2[/itex] but this procedure is getting me nowhere. I also have a similar problem that likely calls for the same approach:

Suppose that [itex]f[/itex] is bounded below by [itex]m[/itex] and that [itex]m[/itex] is a positive number. Prove that [itex]ω(1/f,[a,b])≤ω(f,[a,b])/m^2[/itex].

This one I think I have right but my instructor is telling me that it's wrong. Since all values are positive, by the nature of [itex]\frac{1}{x}[/itex], [itex]\displaystyle\sup f = \frac{1}{\displaystyle\inf f}[/itex] and [itex]\displaystyle\inf f = \frac{1}{\displaystyle\sup f}[/itex]. We can now analyze the oscillation as follows:

[itex]ω(1/f,[a,b])=\frac{1}{\displaystyle\inf f}-\frac{1}{\displaystyle\sup f}=\frac{ω(f,[a,b])}{(\displaystyle\inf f)(\displaystyle\sup f)}≤\frac{ω(f,[a,b])}{m^2}[/itex]
 
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Arkuski said:
Suppose that [itex]f[/itex] is bounded by [itex]M[/itex]. Prove that [itex]ω(f^2,[a,b])≤2Mω(f,[a,b])[/itex].
It's probably not the most elegant, but you could try breaking it into separate cases according to the signs of sup f and inf f.
[itex]\displaystyle\sup f = \frac{1}{\displaystyle\inf f}[/itex]
I think you mean [itex]\displaystyle\sup \frac{1}{f} = \frac{1}{\displaystyle\inf f}[/itex] etc. Other than that, your proof looks fine.
 

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