Why Does \int^{1}_{0}sin(\pi x)sin(n\pi x)dx = 1 for n = 1 and 0 for n >= 2?

leopard · 2008-12-01T14:55:07+00:00

Can somebody explain to me why \int^{1}_{0}sin( \pi x) sin (n \pi x) dx equals 1 if n = 1 and 0 for n >= 2? (n is an integer)

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leopard

Can somebody explain to me why
[tex]\int^{1}_{0}sin( \pi x) sin (n \pi x) dx[/tex] equals 1 if n = 1 and 0 for n >= 2? (n is an integer)

Last edited: Dec 1, 2008

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neo86

Just to give a hint: trigonometric addition formulas...
If this isn't sufficient to solve it, ask again.