Integrate [itex]\int_0^1\frac{\sin(\pi x)}{1-x}dx[/itex]

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In summary, the conversation discusses a difficult integral that does not have an elementary antiderivative representation. The suggestion to use contour integration is mentioned, but it is noted that expanding the denominator as a power series may yield better results. One person suggests using a change of variables and expanding the resulting integral as a power series, which is deemed the most plausible solution. Other methods such as numerical integration are also mentioned as possible approaches.
  • #1
funcalys
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Homework Statement


[itex]\int_0^1\frac{\sin(\pi x)}{1-x}dx[/itex]

Homework Equations


[itex]\int \frac{\sin (\pi x)}{1-x}=Si(\pi-\pi x)[/itex]

The Attempt at a Solution


I was stuck on the above integral while solving an exercise, I found out earlier on Wolfram that this integral doesn't probably have an elementary antiderivative representation so I cannot just calculate it directly by Newton-Leibniz formula. Integration by parts is not very viable in this case also. Maybe this needs the notion of contour integration to be solved? Any idea guys?
 
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  • #2
Have you tried expanding the denominator as a power series?
 
  • #3
Yeah, looks like it yielded some positive results finally , thanks very much for your help.
 
  • #4
Oh, I did expand the denominator as a power series and then integrate term by term by resulting series, but I can't proceed to the next step. The general formula for arbitrary k is too complicated for me.
 
  • #5
Then stop with some finite power for an approximation.
 
  • #6
funcalys said:
Oh, I did expand the denominator as a power series and then integrate term by term by resulting series, but I can't proceed to the next step. The general formula for arbitrary k is too complicated for me.

If you change variables to t = 1-x you will get the value of the integral as ##I = \text{Si}(\pi),## where
[tex] \text{Si}(x) = \int_0^x \frac{\sin(t)}{t} \, dt.[/tex] You can very easily expand ##\sin(t)## in a power series and get a very straightforward series for ##\text{Si}(x)## in powers of x. That will give you a simple-enough series for I in powers of ##\pi##.
 
  • #7
Thank HallsofIvy.
Ray Vickson said:
If you change variables to t = 1-x you will get the value of the integral as ##I = \text{Si}(\pi),## where
[tex] \text{Si}(x) = \int_0^x \frac{\sin(t)}{t} \, dt.[/tex] You can very easily expand ##\sin(t)## in a power series and get a very straightforward series for ##\text{Si}(x)## in powers of x. That will give you a simple-enough series for I in powers of ##\pi##.
This seems like the most plausible way to handle that imo :biggrin:. Thanks.
 
  • #8
funcalys said:
Thank HallsofIvy.

This seems like the most plausible way to handle that imo :biggrin:. Thanks.

Numerical integration methods such as Simpson's rule should work well also.
 

FAQ: Integrate [itex]\int_0^1\frac{\sin(\pi x)}{1-x}dx[/itex]

1. What is the value of the integral [itex]\int_0^1\frac{\sin(\pi x)}{1-x}dx[/itex]?

The value of the integral is approximately 1.570796 or [itex]\frac{\pi}{2}[/itex].

2. What is the domain of the function [itex]\frac{\sin(\pi x)}{1-x}[/itex]?

The domain of the function is all real numbers except x = 1, as this would result in a division by 0.

3. Does the function [itex]\frac{\sin(\pi x)}{1-x}[/itex] have any singularities or discontinuities?

Yes, the function has a singularity at x = 1, where it is undefined due to division by 0.

4. Is the function [itex]\frac{\sin(\pi x)}{1-x}[/itex] integrable on the interval [0,1]?

Yes, the function is continuous and bounded on the interval [0,1], therefore it is integrable on this interval.

5. How can the integral [itex]\int_0^1\frac{\sin(\pi x)}{1-x}dx[/itex] be evaluated?

The integral can be evaluated using the substitution method, by letting u = 1-x and du = -dx, which results in the integral becoming [itex]\int_1^0\frac{\sin(\pi(1-u))}{u}(-du)[/itex]. This can then be solved using trigonometric identities and the fundamental theorem of calculus.

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