Why does substituting u = t² in the Gaussian integral give zero?

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Heresy42
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Dear All,

I computed an integral that looks like erf(x) without problem: [tex]\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} e^{-t^2} dt = \int_{-\infty}^{0} e^{-t^2} dt + \int_{0}^{+\infty} e^{-t^2} dt = \frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{2} [-erf(-\infty)+erf(+\infty)] = \frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{2} [-(-1)+1] = \sqrt{\pi}.[/tex]

However, what about the change of variable: [tex]u = t^2?[/tex]
Hence: [tex]du = 2 dt[/tex] and: [tex]\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} e^{-t^2} dt = \frac{1}{2} \int_{+\infty}^{+\infty} e^{-u} du = -\frac{1}{2} [e^{-u}]_{+\infty}^{+\infty} = 0.[/tex]

I just want to be sure: the second integration doesn't make sense, because the lower and upper bounds are the same, right?

Thanks.

Regards.
 
This is exactly why one splits up an integral from -∞ to ∞ into two parts and takes the limit of each: the normal rules of integration don't necessarily apply.
 
Heresy42 said:
However, what about the change of variable: [tex]u = t^2?[/tex]
Hence: [tex]du = 2 dt[/tex]

No

du=2tdt
 
Heresy42 said:
However, what about the change of variable: [tex]u = t^2?[/tex]
Hence: [tex]du = 2 dt[/tex] and: [tex]\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} e^{-t^2} dt = \frac{1}{2} \int_{+\infty}^{+\infty} e^{-u} du = -\frac{1}{2} [e^{-u}]_{+\infty}^{+\infty} = 0.[/tex]
You've already been told about the problem with du. Another problem here: u cannot be negative, yet you have the integrations limits being -∞ to +∞.
 
Dear D H,

Thanks for your reply. It's now clear to me that this change of variable is for positive values only.

Regards.