Why Does the Binomial Theorem Summation Not Equal 2n When n Varies?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the application of the Binomial Theorem and the summation of binomial coefficients. Participants explore why the summation of binomial coefficients does not equal \(2^n\) as expected when substituting specific values for \(n\). The conversation includes mathematical reasoning and attempts to clarify the conditions under which the theorem applies.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation, Mathematical reasoning, Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant asserts that using the Binomial Theorem leads to the conclusion that the summation of binomial coefficients should equal \(2^n\), but finds discrepancies when substituting values for \(n\).
  • Another participant points out that the issue arises from incorrectly combining terms in the summation, specifically noting that \({n \choose k} = {n \choose n-k}\) leads to double counting.
  • A third participant elaborates on the need to stop combining terms at the midpoint for odd \(n\) and to avoid multiplying the last term by 2 for even \(n\), providing examples to illustrate these points.
  • One participant expresses gratitude for the clarification after struggling with the problem.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not reach a consensus on the correct interpretation of the summation and its relationship to the Binomial Theorem. Multiple viewpoints are presented regarding the handling of terms in the summation.

Contextual Notes

Participants highlight potential misunderstandings related to the manipulation of binomial coefficients and the conditions under which the Binomial Theorem is applied. There are unresolved aspects regarding the treatment of terms based on whether \(n\) is odd or even.

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Using summation(([tex]\stackrel{n}{k}[/tex])xkyn-k) = (x+y)n, I let x = y = 1. This should then result in summation(([tex]\stackrel{n}{k}[/tex])*1*1) = (1 + 1)n = 2n.

Expanding the summation, I get

([tex]\stackrel{n}{0}[/tex]) + ([tex]\stackrel{n}{1}[/tex]) + ... +([tex]\stackrel{n}{n}[/tex]) = 2n.

Solving this results in

[tex]\frac{n!}{0!(n-0)!}[/tex] + [tex]\frac{n!}{1!(n-1)!}[/tex] + [tex]\frac{n!}{2!(n-2)!}[/tex] + ... + [tex]\frac{n!}{(n-1)!(n-(n-1))!}[/tex] + [tex]\frac{n!}{n!(n-n)!}[/tex] = 2n

1 + n + [tex]\frac{n(n-1)}{2!}[/tex] + [tex]\frac{n(n-1)(n-2)}{3!}[/tex] + ... + n + 1 = 2n

2 + 2n + n(n-1) + [tex]\frac{n(n-1)(n-2)}{3}[/tex] + ... = 2n

The issue I am having is that when I plug values of n into the left side I do not get the same answer with the right side.

n = 0 results in 2 + 2(0) + ... = 2, not 20
n = 1 results in 2 + 2(1) + 1(1-1) + ... = 4, not 21
n = 2 results in 2 + 2(2) + 2(2-1) + [tex]\frac{2(2-1)(2-2)}{3}[/tex] + ... = 8, not 22
n = 3 results in 2 + 2(3) + 3(3-1) + [tex]\frac{3(3-1)(3-2)}{3}[/tex] + ... = 16, not 23

This seems as if ([tex]\stackrel{n}{0}[/tex]) + ([tex]\stackrel{n}{1}[/tex]) + ... +([tex]\stackrel{n}{n}[/tex]) = 2n should really be

([tex]\stackrel{n}{0}[/tex]) + ([tex]\stackrel{n}{1}[/tex]) + ... +([tex]\stackrel{n}{n}[/tex]) = 2n+1

Can anyone tell me why solving this summation is not consistent with the binomial theorem?
 
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Your problem lays in the fact that [itex]{n\choose k}={n\choose n-k}[/itex]. While manipulating the expanded factorial form of the series you combined these coefficients, effectively doubling the terms for each choice of n. Whereas for n=0 there should be exactly one term, [itex]n\choose 0[/itex], you instead have two terms [itex]{n\choose 0}+{n\choose n}[/itex].
(Which is equal to [itex]2{0\choose 0}[/itex]).
 
JThompson is right.

If you wish to combind [itex]\binom{n}{k}[/itex] and [itex]\binom{n}{n-k}[/itex] to get [itex]\binom{n}{k}+\binom{n}{n-k}=2\binom{n}{k}[/itex], you need to stop in the middle, or you will double the whole thing and get 2·2n=2n+1.

If n is odd, you get:
[tex]2\binom{n}{0}+2\binom{n}{1}+\ldots+2\binom{n}{\frac{n-1}{2}}=2^n[/tex]
So the last term should be when k = (n-1)/2. If n=1, the last term should be when k=0, which means there'll only be one term: [itex]2\binom{1}{0}=2[/itex]
If n=3, you get: [itex]2\binom{3}{0}+2\binom{3}{1}=8[/itex] etc.

If n is even, you get:
[tex]2\binom{n}{0}+2\binom{n}{1}+...+2\binom{n}{\frac{n}{2}-1}+\binom{n}{\frac{n}{2}}=2^n[/tex]
So the last term should not be multiplied by 2. That is when k = n/2. If n=0, k will also be 0 in the last term. Since it's the last term, it should not be multiplied by 2.
Exapmles where n is even:
n=0: [itex]\binom{0}{0}=1[/itex]
n=2: [itex]2\binom{2}{0}+\binom{2}{1}=4[/itex]
n=4: [itex]2\binom{4}{0}+2\binom{4}{1}+\binom{4}{2}=16[/itex]

So if you wish to combind 2 terms to get fewer terms, remember to stop in the middle, and if n is even, don't multiply the last term by 2.
If you want, you could also just keep all the terms and not multiply any of them by 2.
 
Thanks! I spent an hour thinking about it last night and couldn't see what I was doing wrong.
 

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