Why does the sinc function approach zero as the argument approaches infinity?

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The discussion centers on the behavior of the sinc function, specifically sin(vx)/x, as v approaches infinity. Participants clarify that while sin(vx) oscillates, the envelope of 1/x causes the function to approach zero for all x ≠ 0. The key point is that the limit of sin(vx)/x as v approaches infinity approximates a delta function, which is formally shown through integration rather than pointwise evaluation. The integral of this function over a region not containing the origin yields zero, reinforcing its relationship with the delta function. Understanding this limit requires recognizing the integral's behavior rather than focusing solely on the function's pointwise values.
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Consider sin(vx)/x as v approaches infinity. Now, this becomes a delta function and I have seen graphs that show this function as v increases.

My question is the following: I cannot quite see why the function sin(vx)/x becomes zero if x≠0. sin(vx) is bounded and oscillates rapidly between -1 and 1 as x is changed. But the envelope of the function is still 1/x so how come it goes to zero for all x≠0? Can someone prove this result?

Thank you.
 
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I think you're talking about sin(1/x) not, (sinx)/x

Edit: Actually re-reading your post, I realize I have no idea what you're asking.sinx/x is in no way related to the delta function, and does not oscillate between anything, it's just a normal sinx that diminishes as you approach infinity.
Sin(1/x) however does oscillate in a divergent manner as you approach 0, the limit is quite strange and nothing is quite like it.
 
No, it is sin(vx)/x. As v gets larger, it approximates a delta function better. Now, with v→∞, I cannot see why the function is zero if x is non zero.

A similar definition is here http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sinc_function where there is a section on how it relates to the dirac delta function.
 
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The proper way to show that

\lim_{v \rightarrow \infty} \frac{\sin(vx)}{x} = \delta(x)

is not to try and show that the left hand side is infinite when x = 0 and zero for non-zero x. That might be true of some representations of the delta function, but really what you need to show is that

\lim_{v\rightarrow \infty} \int_{-\infty}^\infty dx~\frac{\sin(vx)}{x} f(x) = f(0).

Similarly you can show that if the integration region does not contain the origin, the integral is zero.

That is the appropriate sense in which one should interpret "\lim_{v \rightarrow \infty} \frac{\sin(vx)}{x} = \delta(x)".
 
Thank you Mute. Didn't know that before but yeah, I can prove it according to your definition so I guess it's all good.
 
Good morning I have been refreshing my memory about Leibniz differentiation of integrals and found some useful videos from digital-university.org on YouTube. Although the audio quality is poor and the speaker proceeds a bit slowly, the explanations and processes are clear. However, it seems that one video in the Leibniz rule series is missing. While the videos are still present on YouTube, the referring website no longer exists but is preserved on the internet archive...

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