Why Does the Sum Converge to π²/6?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the convergence of the series \(\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n^2}\) to the value \(\frac{\pi^2}{6}\). Participants explore the nature of this convergence, its mathematical justification, and the relationship between the series and integrals, as well as the role of power series in understanding this identity.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants note that the series is a p-series and discuss its convergence, referencing the integral test for convergence.
  • Others express curiosity about why the series converges specifically to \(\frac{\pi^2}{6}\) rather than another value, highlighting a distinction between the sum and the integral.
  • Several participants suggest that power series methods might be relevant for calculating the sum, although there is disagreement about the nature and requirements of power series.
  • One participant emphasizes the importance of Euler's work in understanding this convergence, suggesting that his insights could provide clarity.
  • There is a debate regarding the characteristics of power series, with some participants asserting that most power series involve factorials, while others challenge this assertion and provide counterexamples.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree that the series converges, but there is no consensus on the reasons for its convergence to \(\frac{\pi^2}{6}\) or the relevance of power series in this context. Disagreements exist regarding the nature of power series and their typical forms.

Contextual Notes

Some statements made by participants depend on specific definitions of power series and may not account for all types of series. The discussion includes unresolved mathematical steps and assumptions regarding the convergence of the series and its relationship to integrals.

gamesguru
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[SOLVED] Sum converging to pi^2/6, why?

I've seen the identity,
[tex]\frac{\pi^2}{6}=\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n^2}[/tex]
but I've never seen a proof of this. Could anyone tell me why this is true?
 
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well this is a p-series. So the series [tex]\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n^2}[/tex] , converges if

[tex]\int_1^{\infty}\frac{dx}{x^{2}}=\lim_{b\rightarrow\infty}\int_1^b x^{-2}dx=-\lim_{b\rightarrow\infty}( \frac{1}{x}|_1^b)=-\lim_{b\rightarrow\infty}(\frac{1}{b}-1)=1[/tex]

I don't see how would this converge to what u wrote though.. sorry..
 
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I'm well aware that the sum converges, but I'm curious why it converges to [itex]\frac{\pi^1}{6}[/itex], and not some other value. The integral and the sum have different values. The integral is 1, the sum is not.
 
gamesguru said:
I'm well aware that the sum converges, but I'm curious why it converges to [itex]\frac{\pi^1}{6}[/itex], and not some other value. The integral and the sum have different values. The integral is 1, the sum is not.


Have you learned power series?? I think you have to write the power series for that serie, and after that use the methods of power series to calculate that sum.
 
sutupidmath said:
Have you learned power series?? I think you have to write the power series for that serie, and after that use the methods of power series to calculate that sum.
If this were a power series, it would involve [itex]n![/itex].
 
ObsessiveMathsFreak said:
Read Euler. He is the master of us all.
Thanks that's what I wanted to see.
 
That's a very nice explanation, Euler was a true master of mathematics :smile:
 
  • #10
sutupidmath said:
Have you learned power series?? I think you have to write the power series for that serie, and after that use the methods of power series to calculate that sum.
The power series for a series? You can think of a numerical series as a power series (in x) evaluated at a specific value of a but there are an infinite number of power series that can produce a given series in that way.

gamesguru said:
If this were a power series, it would involve [itex]n![/itex].
No, a power series is any series of the form [itex]\Sum a_n x^n[/itex] where [itex]a_n[/itex] is any sequence of numbers. Even the Taylor's series for ln(x) does not involve n!
 
  • #11
HallsofIvy said:
No, a power series is any series of the form [itex]\Sum a_n x^n[/itex] where [itex]a_n[/itex] is any sequence of numbers. Even the Taylor's series for ln(x) does not involve n!
My bad. Most involve n!, but all involve n.
 
  • #12
gamesguru said:
My bad. Most involve n!, but all involve n.

Except those that involve "i"! Do you have any support for your statement that "most" power series involve a factorial? That is certainly not my experience.
 
  • #13
HallsofIvy said:
Except those that involve "i"! Do you have any support for your statement that "most" power series involve a factorial? That is certainly not my experience.

gamesguru just took a weighted average over all power series, giving ones he (?) knew weight 1/n and all others weight 0. :wink:
 
  • #14
e^x (hyperbolic functions included), sin[x], cos[x], tan[x] all have a factorial in their power series. The only useful examples I can think of that don't have a factorial are the inverse trig functions and the natural log. Anyways, I don't want to get into an argument, I'll just rephrase myself, most power series that I've seen and observe as useful, involve a factorial. And no, I can't prove that.
 

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