Why does Wien's displacement law not hold for frequency?

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Wien's displacement law defines the wavelength of maximum intensity in blackbody radiation as λmax = 2.898 x 10-3/T, where T is the temperature in kelvins. However, when transforming this law to frequency, the expected relationship fmax = c/λmax does not hold. This discrepancy arises because the function defined in the frequency domain, 𝜏u(f), is not equivalent to the Planck distribution. To find fmax, it is necessary to maximize the product of 𝜏u(f) and dλ/df.

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Wien's displacement law states that the wavelength of highest intensity in the radiation from a blackbody is something like:

\lambda_{max} = \frac{2.898*10^{-3}}{T}

in meters, where T is the temperature given in kelvins.

If you try to transform this law into frequency one would expect that we should have:

f_{max} = \frac{c}{\lambda_{max}}

but apparently this is not the case! Why is it like that?
I mean, if you have a blackbody radiation field it will have a maximum of intensity at some frequency, but shouldn't that frequency coincide with the wavelength for which it has the maximum intensity?

Please help!
 
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Wein's law results from finding a maximum in the Planck distribution u \left( \lambda \right). Given u \left( \lambda \right) and \lambda \left( f \right) = c/f, a new function \tilde{u} \left( f \right) = u \left( \lambda \left( f \right) \right) of frequency can be defined, but \tilde{u} \left( f \right) is not the Planck distribution in the frequency domain. If it were, then f_{max} and \lambda_{max} would correspond.

\int_{0}^{\infty} u \left( \lambda \right) d\lambda = \int_{\infty}^{0} \tilde{u} \left( f \right) \frac{d \lambda}{df} df = - \int_{0}^{\infty} \tilde{u} \left( f \right) \frac{d \lambda}{df} df

Consequently,

- \tilde{u} \left( f \right) \frac{d \lambda}{df}

needs to be maximized to find f_{max}.

Regards,
George
 
Last edited:
Of course!
You need to have the two integrals you wrote equall so that the energy (intensity) that is radiated in a certain frequency range is the same as the intensity of the corresponding wavelength, right?
 
Jezuz said:
Of course!
You need to have the two integrals you wrote equall so that the energy (intensity) that is radiated in a certain frequency range is the same as the intensity of the corresponding wavelength, right?

Yes.

Note that I corrected a silly mistake in my previous post.

Regards,
George
 

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