Why Doesn't the Integral of cos(x)sin(x) Equal (1/2)sin(2x)?

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SUMMARY

The integral of cos(x)sin(x) does equal (1/2)sin(2x) when evaluated correctly, but the confusion arises from the integration process. By substituting u = sin(x), the left integral simplifies to (1/2)sin^2(x) + C. The right integral, when evaluated, results in -(1/4)cos(2x) + C', which can be transformed to match the left side by recognizing that cos(2x) can be expressed in terms of sin^2(x). Thus, both integrals are equivalent when constants are adjusted appropriately.

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daudaudaudau
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We know that

[tex]\cos{x}\sin{x}=\frac{\sin{2x}}{2}[/tex]

so why isnt

[tex]\int\cos{(x)}\sin{(x)}dx=\int\frac{\sin{(2x)}}{2}dx[/tex]

?
 
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They are the same. Why do you think they aren't? It's easy to integrate both sides and then show that the integrals are the same.

For example, on the left side, you can let u= sin(x) so that du= cos(x)dx and the integral becomes [itex]\int u du= (1/2)u^2+ C= (1/2)sin^2(x)+ C[/itex]

The integral on the right is simply [itex]-(1/4)cos(2x)+ C'[/itex]. Not obvious that those are the same? cos(2x)= cos2(x)- sin2(x)= (1- sin2(x))- sin2(x)= 1- 2sin2(x) so [itex]-(1/4)cos(2x)+ C'= 1+ (1/2)sin^2(x)+ C'[/itex] which is exactly the same as the first with C= 1+ C'.
 
Ah okay, I see. Thank you.
 

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