- #1
Frigus
- 337
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In incomplete dominance we say that trait expressed in F₁ is mixture of parents trait and in co dominance both the traits are expressed.
Now problem is that even in co dominance their is not complete dominance of any trait so why do we call only intermediate/mosaic inheritance as incomplete dominance.
It makes sense to me if we say both of these fall in category of incomplete dominance but it is not the case as we call only mosaic inheritance as incomplete dominance.
Thanks
Now problem is that even in co dominance their is not complete dominance of any trait so why do we call only intermediate/mosaic inheritance as incomplete dominance.
It makes sense to me if we say both of these fall in category of incomplete dominance but it is not the case as we call only mosaic inheritance as incomplete dominance.
Thanks