Why is 0 divided by 0 undefined?

  • Context: High School 
  • Thread starter Thread starter Ahmed Jubair
  • Start date Start date
Click For Summary

Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the concept of dividing zero by zero (0/0) and why it is considered undefined in mathematics. Participants explore various interpretations, implications, and reasoning behind this mathematical principle, touching on theoretical, conceptual, and mathematical aspects.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Conceptual clarification

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants argue that since 2/2=1 and 5/5=1, it might imply that 0/0 could equal 1, but they also express confusion about why it is undefined.
  • Others assert that dividing by zero is inherently undefined, including the case of 0/0.
  • A participant points out that any number multiplied by zero equals zero, raising the question of how to define 0/0.
  • Another participant suggests that there are multiple limits that could approach 0/0, such as lim(x→0) x/x = 1, but also lim(x→0) 2x/x = 2, indicating that 0/0 could yield different results.
  • Some participants discuss the concept of division as repeated subtraction, illustrating that 0/0 could lead to infinite answers, thus complicating its definition.
  • A proof by contradiction is presented, highlighting that dividing by zero leads to contradictions, reinforcing the idea that division by zero is not valid.
  • Several participants mention that it is an axiom that division by zero is undefined, with some expressing that this concept is intuitively sensible.
  • There is a discussion about the nature of zero in multiplication and its lack of an inverse, suggesting that this contributes to the undefined nature of 0/0.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not reach a consensus on the nature of 0/0. While some agree that it is undefined, others propose different interpretations and reasoning, leading to multiple competing views.

Contextual Notes

There are limitations in the assumptions made by participants regarding the nature of zero and division, as well as the definitions used in their arguments. The discussion reflects a variety of mathematical perspectives without resolving the underlying complexities.

Ahmed Jubair
if( 2/2=1,5/5=1) then it must be that 0/0=1.but Again,it couldn't be (-1) also i think because if its-5/5=5,-2/2=-2.but 0 have no value and its the low valuenumber.so no need a( - )before it.so(- 0/0 is not =-1)
then why its undefined?why not 1
 
Mathematics news on Phys.org
Dividing by 0 is undefined.

You can't divide anything by 0 ... including 0!
 
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: Ahmed Jubair
2/2=1 because 2=2x1, likewise 8/8=1 because 8=8x1 is satisfied. But now, which number when multiplied by zero yields zero? It's anything, 0 = 0x3 = 0x100 = 0x1000. Then how will you define 0/0?
 
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: Ahmed Jubair
Because there are many ways in which the limit 0/0 could be reached. Your comment (2/2=1, 5/5=1, ...) is implicitly defining:

\frac{0}{0}=\lim_{x\to 0} \frac{x}{x} = 1

But this is not the only possibility. Why couldn't I define:

\frac{0}{0}=\lim_{x\to 0} \frac{2x}{x} = 2 or : \frac{0}{0}=\lim_{x\to 0} \frac{x}{2x} = 1/2

or in an infinite number of other ways? That is why it is undefined.
 
Ahmed Jubair said:
if( 2/2=1,5/5=1) then it must be that 0/0=1.but Again,it couldn't be (-1) also i think because if its-5/5=5,-2/2=-2.
I don't understand what you're doing here. -5/5 = -1, not 5, and -2/2 = -1, not 2
Ahmed Jubair said:
but 0 have no value
Certainly 0 has a value.
Ahmed Jubair said:
and its the low valuenumber
?
It's the smallest number that isn't negative.
Ahmed Jubair said:
.so no need a( - )before it.so(- 0/0 is not =-1)
then why its undefined?why not 1
 
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: jim mcnamara
I prefer to say: ##0## is no element of the multiplicative group. Therefore the question whether there is an inverse or not simply doesn't exist.
One could now object: But ##1## as the neutral element of multiplication is part of the additive group, it even generates it.
My answer then would be: ##1## has a natural usage for addition, ##0## hasn't for multiplication. The definition ##0 \cdot 1 = 0## simply is a necessity for the distributive law which is the only connection between both operations.
 
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: ProfuselyQuarky
fresh_42 said:
I prefer to say: ##0## is no element of the multiplicative group. Therefore the question whether there is an inverse or not simply doesn't exist.
One could now object: But ##1## as the neutral element of multiplication is part of the additive group, it even generates it.
My answer then would be: ##1## has a natural usage for addition, ##0## hasn't for multiplication. The definition ##0 \cdot 1 = 0## simply is a necessity for the distributive law which is the only connection between both operations.
That's a nice explanation. I really love how such a simple question can have such a variety of legitimate answers.
 
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: DrewD
Division is a repeated subtraction and you keep doing it until you reach zero or a dead end ( reminder)

So for example:
20 -5 -5 -5 -5 = 0
So the result of 20/5 = 4 (how many times did you repeat the 5?)

Now for the zero:

0 - 0 = 0 ... Well I reached zero (so 0/0 = 1)
How about this:
0 - 0 - 0 - 0 = 0 I reached zero too ( 0/0 = 3 )
So you can see that you can make infinite answers. So when you divide 0/0, you can't just choose one of the answers because Why not the others too?

That is how I see it which is similar to Blue_Leaf way
 
One could also use a proof by contradiction here.
Let a=b, if we multiply both sides by a..
a^2=ab ,now subtract b^2 from both sides.
a^2-b^2=ab-b^2
Now simply factorise:
(a-b)(a+b)=b(a-b) , now divide both sides by (a-b).
So we're left with, (a+b)=b
Using our original definition of a=b, we can simplfy this to 2b=b which implies that 2=1, which is mathematically incorrect. The mathematics of my steps were valid until the point where I divided both sides by (a-b), [a-b=0]. So as you can already tell, dividing anything by zero is not possible. Many other good reasons have been explained here. Try a graphical approach if you're really interested, and plot as many graphs as you can that pass through (0,0), the trend you will notice is that there are an infinite amount of ways to approach 0 and thus we cannot give it's division a value.
 
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: Biker
  • #10
It's an axiom that division by zero is undefined, conceptually it makes sense because it makes no sense to ask ' how much nothing goes into something '.
It's also interesting to note that you can't divide any number by another and obtain a non-approximate zero.
Pure mathematics makes my head hurt.
 
  • #11
Marcus-H said:
It's an axiom that division by zero is undefined, ...
It is not. 0 has nothing to do with multiplication. There is no need for an inverse!
 
  • #12
fresh_42 said:
It is not. 0 has nothing to do with multiplication. There is no need for an inverse!

Hmm I was using 'axiom' in it's broadest sense though your point is well taken, thanks.
 
  • #13
whit3r0se- said:
One could also use a proof by contradiction here.
Let a=b, if we multiply both sides by a..
a^2=ab ,now subtract b^2 from both sides.
a^2-b^2=ab-b^2
Now simply factorise:
(a-b)(a+b)=b(a-b) , now divide both sides by (a-b).
No, this isn't valid. Since a = b, by assumption, then a - b = 0, so you're dividing by zero.
If you do that, all bets are off, which you explain below.
whit3r0se- said:
So we're left with, (a+b)=b
Using our original definition of a=b, we can simplfy this to 2b=b which implies that 2=1, which is mathematically incorrect. The mathematics of my steps were valid until the point where I divided both sides by (a-b), [a-b=0]. So as you can already tell, dividing anything by zero is not possible. Many other good reasons have been explained here. Try a graphical approach if you're really interested, and plot as many graphs as you can that pass through (0,0), the trend you will notice is that there are an infinite amount of ways to approach 0 and thus we cannot give it's division a value.
 
  • #14
Marcus-H said:
It's an axiom that division by zero is undefined, conceptually it makes sense because it makes no sense to ask ' how much nothing goes into something '.
It's also interesting to note that you can't divide any number by another and obtain a non-approximate zero.
"non-approximate zero"? What is that?
If you divide any nonzero number by itself, you get 1.
Marcus-H said:
Pure mathematics makes my head hurt.
 
  • #15
Time to put this thread to bed. The question has been asked and answered. Division by zero is undefined, and that's all you need to say.
 
Last edited:

Similar threads

  • · Replies 48 ·
2
Replies
48
Views
5K
  • · Replies 55 ·
2
Replies
55
Views
7K
  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
3K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
1K
  • · Replies 66 ·
3
Replies
66
Views
7K
  • · Replies 16 ·
Replies
16
Views
2K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
2K
  • · Replies 44 ·
2
Replies
44
Views
5K
  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K