- #1

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- 5

## Main Question or Discussion Point

Hey all, $$v = 2 \pi f =2 \pi \frac{1}{T} =\frac{2 \pi }{T} $$ but why is it multiplied by $$R$$? Any help appreciated.

I see now why R is multiplied in now, but why inst L multiplied in in the analogous pendulum equation?

I see now why R is multiplied in now, but why inst L multiplied in in the analogous pendulum equation?