- #1

- 48

- 0

I am aware that you can prove this by showing that:

[itex](\vec{a}\times\vec{b})\cdot\vec{a} = (\vec{a}\times\vec{b})\cdot\vec{b} = 0[/itex]

Surely it was not defined as this and worked backwards though. I see little advantage in making this definition, and simply guessing it seems a bit random, so what brings it about?