Why is the Euler Sum Infinite for Zeta=1?

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    Euler Infinite Sum
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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers on the nature of the Euler sum at zeta=1, specifically why the series "1 + 1/2 + 1/3 + 1/4 + ..." diverges, while the series "1 + 1/4 + 1/9 + ..." converges. The conversation explores concepts related to series convergence and divergence, including harmonic series and p-series.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants note that the series "1 + 1/2 + 1/3 + ..." is a harmonic series, which diverges, while "1 + 1/4 + 1/9 + ..." converges.
  • One participant explains that the divergence of the harmonic series is due to it being a p-series with p equal to 1, which does not meet the condition for convergence (p > 1).
  • Another participant mentions that the second series converges to π²/6, although demonstrating this convergence is more complex.
  • Some participants illustrate the divergence of the harmonic series through a rearrangement of terms that leads to an infinite sum.
  • One participant suggests using the integral test to show the divergence of the harmonic series and the convergence of the series involving squares.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree on the divergence of the harmonic series and the convergence of the series involving squares, but the discussion includes various methods and explanations, indicating some differences in understanding and approach.

Contextual Notes

Some participants reference specific mathematical tests and properties of series, but the discussion does not resolve all nuances regarding the proofs or implications of convergence and divergence.

overlook1977
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This may be a stupid question, but I do not understand why the Euler sum is infinite for zeta=1. Why is "1+1/2+1/3+1/4+... " infinite, but zeta=2 (1+1/4+1/9+...) not?
 
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1+1/2+1/3+... is [tex]\sum_n \frac{1}{n}[/tex] is a harmonic series and there are various tests to show that this diverges while
1+1/4+1/9+... is really [tex]\sum_n \frac{1}{n^2}[/tex] and this series converges
 
The first series is a p series where p is equal to 1. We know for convergence of p series that a condition is that p>1.

The second series converges to [itex]\pi^2/6[/itex] but is somewhat harder to show. Just to show it converges at all though, p=2 which is more than 1. Look up p series.
 
1+1/2+1/3+1/4+1/5+1/6+1/7+1/8+...>
1+1/2+1/4+1/4+1/8+1/8+1/8+1/8+...=
1+1/2+1/2+ 1/2+... which diverges.
 
mathman said:
1+1/2+1/3+1/4+1/5+1/6+1/7+1/8+...>
1+1/2+1/4+1/4+1/8+1/8+1/8+1/8+...=
1+1/2+1/2+ 1/2+... which diverges.

Brilliant!
 
You can use the integral test: [tex]1+1/2+1/3+++1/n> \int_N\frac{1}{x}dx =ln (N )\rightarrow \infty.[/tex]

And: [tex]1/4+1/9+1/16 +(1/(N+1)^2 < \int_1^N\frac{1}{x^2}dx =1-1/N.[/tex]
 
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