alejandrito29
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why in the problem of dirac delta potential, the integral
[tex]\int^{\epsilon}_{-\epsilon}\phi''(x)dx[/tex] is equal to [tex]\phi'(\epsilon)-\phi'(-\epsilon)[/tex]?
but [tex]\int^{\epsilon}_{-\epsilon}\phi(x)dx[/tex] is equal to 0
if, for example[tex]\phi(x)=e^x[/tex]
then [tex]\phi(x)''=\phi(x)[/tex]
but, the firts integral is [tex]e^{\epsilon}-e^{-\epsilon}[/tex]
and the second integral would be to zero
i don't understand
[tex]\int^{\epsilon}_{-\epsilon}\phi''(x)dx[/tex] is equal to [tex]\phi'(\epsilon)-\phi'(-\epsilon)[/tex]?
but [tex]\int^{\epsilon}_{-\epsilon}\phi(x)dx[/tex] is equal to 0
if, for example[tex]\phi(x)=e^x[/tex]
then [tex]\phi(x)''=\phi(x)[/tex]
but, the firts integral is [tex]e^{\epsilon}-e^{-\epsilon}[/tex]
and the second integral would be to zero
i don't understand
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