kasse Messages 383 Reaction score 1 Thread starter Nov 10, 2008 #1 Can someone explain to me why the solution of [tex]\frac{d^{2}\Phi (\phi)}{d\phi^{2}} = -m_{l}^{2}[/tex] is [tex]\Phi = e^{im_{l}\phi}[/tex]?
Can someone explain to me why the solution of [tex]\frac{d^{2}\Phi (\phi)}{d\phi^{2}} = -m_{l}^{2}[/tex] is [tex]\Phi = e^{im_{l}\phi}[/tex]?
Dick Science Advisor Homework Helper Messages 26,254 Reaction score 623 Nov 10, 2008 #2 It's not. A solution of [tex] \frac{d^{2}\Phi (\phi)}{d\phi^{2}} = -m_{l}^{2}\Phi(\phi)[/tex] is [tex] \Phi = e^{im_{l}\phi}[/tex]. Just substitute Phi into the ODE.
It's not. A solution of [tex] \frac{d^{2}\Phi (\phi)}{d\phi^{2}} = -m_{l}^{2}\Phi(\phi)[/tex] is [tex] \Phi = e^{im_{l}\phi}[/tex]. Just substitute Phi into the ODE.
kasse Messages 383 Reaction score 1 Nov 11, 2008 #3 If I'm given the ODE, is inspection the only way to find the solution?
HallsofIvy Science Advisor Homework Helper Messages 42,895 Reaction score 983 Nov 11, 2008 #4 If you have not learned to solve differential equations, yes! If you have then you would know how to use the solutions to the characteristic equation, then you could use that method.
If you have not learned to solve differential equations, yes! If you have then you would know how to use the solutions to the characteristic equation, then you could use that method.