Why is the Yorke-Kaplan conjecture still unresolved?

[Joppy]

I read somewhere that this was proved sometime in the 80's, but that same source didn't mention that the proof was wrong. Of course I would cite the source but I can't find it again.. Does anyone know of any specific reason why this is still a conjecture?

I realize that for these sorts of measures there is often some pathological or special case getting in the way. Is that what is happening here?

Thanks :).

 

[Ackbach]

The MathWorld article fits your description (mentions that it was "proved" in the 1980's, but does not mention a flaw in the proof), but I'm not sure if that's what you were thinking of.

 

[Joppy]

The MathWorld article fits your description (mentions that it was "proved" in the 1980's, but does not mention a flaw in the proof), but I'm not sure if that's what you were thinking of.

Thanks Ackbach! I'm not sure it's the same article.. but I should have checked at MathWorld anyway since there is a nice paper trail there :). Thanks again.