Why is there no 'classical' interpretation of movements in quantum mechanics?

There are tons of interpretations of quantum mechanics, but I'm unaware of any that are 'classical' as in being local, having realism and determinism.
There is Bells famous work proving that that can't be true for certain aspects of quantum mechanics, but why aren't there any classical interpretation which apply to the movements of particles and which call entanglement just a completely different phenomena?

Using a real wave and by using chaos it seems to me that all the movement issues such as the double-slit experiment but even the quantum erasure experiment or the delayed choice experiment can be described at least conceptually just fine, some of the details would be strange, but far less so than breaking realism is to me. What am I missing here?

 

Unfortunately that goes quite a bit over my head, but from reading through it I couldn't really find any experimental evidence besides Bell work that shows that quantum mechanics can't be solved classically, any arguments seemed to be based on that and not for example particle movements.

 

Misinterpretations? I always thought they were quite well supported.

Anyway, where does it go wrong using real waves? Which parts of it don't work out?

 

So which interpretation is the right one according to you?

That unfortunately doesn't really aid in helping to understand why it is that real waves don't work out. Fine, they aren't used in quantum mechanics, but why not? At least conceptually it seems very possible to me to use a real wave like a guiding wave of a particle with a defined position. Why doesn't this work out?

 

Well Bells argument only works on entangled particles, that seems to be something clearly different than the movement of particles. If a theory like that could predict all particle movements but leaves entanglement for different theories, why not use it? I understand it wouldn't be a perfect solution, but I don't really see why it isn't even mentioned anywhere as a reasonably valid idea.

 

There's no motion in straight lines. But classically held notions about realism determinism and locality seem to be be preservable, at least with my limited amount of knowledge. And I'm wondering either why it's impossible like that, or at least why no one really seems to think that models preserving all 3 of those are viable.

 

How would it be less useful? Is usefulness determined by how unified things are? I don't see a problem with placing all particle interactions and inner particle workings in different models. Perhaps finding out what is really happening is less important than finding out how to do predictions, but surely if there's only a small chance that that is what is really happening and the same predictions are made are the same, why isn't the thought at least worthy of exploration?
I would be convinced that it would be worthy if it wasn't already disproven somehow. What however would be disproving is what I'm mainly asking about, as I do not know.

I meant with the wave being real as in opposed to mathematical constructs. For example it seems to me that in Bohmian mechanics (correct me if I'm wrong), there is a guiding wave which is more like some sort of nonlocal calculating device taking all particles in the universe into account. Replace that calculating device with something local and realistic which is actually out there, flying around, propagating due to it's own shape, interacting with the particle it is guiding and other particles (observers which eliminate the wave, mirrors, and so on), and you pretty much have the real wave I mean.
Thanks for clearing that confusion up, I was already wondering why he would respond about kets and complex phases which didn't seem to have a lot to do with what I was trying to ask.

Well I didn't really mean it should be called classical mechanics, I meant an interpretation of quantum mechanics which is split into two parts. One about the movements and positions or particles and interactions which would be local, realistic and deterministic. And one about inner particle variables like spin which would also handle entanglement which would not be local, but realistic and possibly deterministic.

That's why I'm here, to find out where my thinking is going wrong.

Well I'm aware locality must be broken in entanglement, I'm wondering why this combinations of realism, determinism and locality seems to be excluded by everyone for particle movements as well as entanglement. I just don't understand why a rule found for quantum entanglement must be true for all of quantum mechanics, the terms both have the word 'quantum' in them but that doesn't really seem like a reason strong enough to force them together in that way. Maybe I'm still too much in a classical mindset, but locality and realism especially still give me the: "it must be like that!" vibe, and while locality is broken in entanglement it would be great if it could be preserved in particle movements in my mind. Locality breaches through entanglement might still make some 'sense' (physics isn't about sense of course, but it helps) but I just can't picture particles being nonlocally influenced by all particles in the universe.

The articles which I had red a few times before didn't really spawn any questions, these were luckily not the pages containing maths that probably require a few years of study.

Edit: In hindsight, I've always wondered how close true locality would be. Is that only particles less than a Planck length away? Or should particles even overlap?

 

I'm not claiming anything, I am asking why it has to be like that. Why doesn't a REAL wave work? Why is a purely mathematical model preferred over that?

Again, I'm aware that no current models have particle movements which are local, realistic and deterministic, so I am asking why this is the case. Which experimental evidence or arguments derived from those show that particle movements have to be non-local and non-deterministic?