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Why do paradoxes like Russel's paradox and the barber paradox occur? Is something wrong with the definition or what?
Who is trying to modify set theory?Exactly ,even I think that the question itself is silly. But then why are people trying to modify the definition of set theory to avoid the paradox?
Regarding the set of all sets:Exactly ,even I think that the question itself is silly. But then why are people trying to modify the definition of set theory to avoid the paradox?