Morse-Kelley Class Comprehension axiom and Russell's paradox

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the resolution of Russell's paradox within the frameworks of Zermelo-Fraenkel set theory with the Axiom of Choice (ZFC) and Morse-Kelley (MK) set theory. In ZFC, the paradox is resolved by restricting the set {x|x∉x} to a set S, while in MK, the Class Comprehension axiom allows for the existence of a proper class M, which broadens the scope and alters the resolution. The Class Comprehension Axiom schema asserts that for any formula φ, a class of all sets satisfying φ exists, but it does not extend to classes themselves, preventing the occurrence of Russell's paradox in MK.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Zermelo-Fraenkel set theory (ZFC)
  • Familiarity with Morse-Kelley set theory (MK)
  • Knowledge of Class Comprehension axiom schema
  • Basic grasp of Russell's paradox
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the implications of Class Comprehension in Morse-Kelley set theory
  • Examine the differences between ZFC and MK in handling paradoxes
  • Explore the formal definitions and applications of proper classes in set theory
  • Investigate other paradoxes in set theory and their resolutions
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, logicians, and students of set theory seeking to deepen their understanding of Russell's paradox and the distinctions between ZFC and Morse-Kelley frameworks.

nomadreid
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As I understand the ZFC solution to Russell's paradox, since {x|x[itex]\notin[/itex]x} must be {x|x[itex]\notin[/itex]x}[itex]\cap[/itex]S for some set S, the paradox goes away, but in Morse-Kelley, if I understand Class Comprehension correctly, although again there must be some M such that {x|x[itex]\notin[/itex]x}[itex]\cap[/itex]M, this M may be a proper class, which no longer is as limiting as the ZFC version, and hence no longer gives the same solution. So either I am going wrong somewhere, or MK solves Russell's Paradox in a different way. I would be grateful for enlightenment. Thanks.
 
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The Class comprehension Axiom schema states that for any formula phi (with one free variable), there exists a class of all sets satisfying phi. It does not say that there exists a class of all classes satisfying phi. So there's a (proper) class of all sets which do not contain themselves, but there's no class of all classes which do not contain themselves. So Russell's paradox doesn't occur.
 
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