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Why should the action be Lorentz invariant?

  1. Jul 31, 2009 #1
    Why should the action be Lorentz invariant? Every time I come across this it is assumed by the author without qualification. As too obvious to explain maybe? Ain't obvious to me.
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Jul 31, 2009 #2
  4. Jul 31, 2009 #3
    i get it now. Thanks.
     
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