gaus12777
- 12
- 1
Could you tell me the reason that if pole is close to the imaginary axis, (1) can be same as (2).
Why this approximation is correct?
- Thread starter gaus12777
- Start date
Join the discussion
Registration is free. Ask a follow-up in this thread, or start your own.
1 reply · 1K views
Could you tell me the reason that if pole is close to the imaginary axis, (1) can be same as (2).
Discussion
Science Advisor
Homework Helper
- 9,561
- 4,796
The fact that the roots of (1) are close to the imaginary axis tells you (from the real part of the quadratic equation) that 2ζpωp is small. Ignoring that part of (1) gives (2).