Would Gravity Waves Show Doppler Shift?

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The discussion centers on whether gravity waves exhibit a Doppler shift similar to light waves, particularly in relation to objects moving towards or away from an observer. Participants agree that gravity waves would indeed show a Doppler shift, as this phenomenon applies to any periodic emission with finite propagation speed. However, the strength of gravity waves is primarily determined by the amplitude of the wave field rather than its frequency. The frequency of gravity waves may indicate the rotation rate of the emitting system, but it does not affect the gravitational force exerted on a mass. Overall, the consensus is that while gravity waves can be redshifted, their strength remains unaffected by frequency.
peter0302
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Random question that I thought of while trying to fall asleep last night. :)

We all know that galaxies moving very fast away from us exhibit visual redshift.

If gravity waves / gravitons are real, they must then have a frequency of some kind. Does the frequency of a gravity wave affect its strength? (i.e. does a more massive object emit higher frequency gravity waves?) If so, would an object moving away from us be "red shifted" to have a weaker gravitational effect than if it were the same distance away, but moving towad us?
 
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The frequency of the wave indicates the rotation rate of the object emitting it.

And yes, they would exhibit a Doppler shift. Doppler shift happens for any periodic emission with a finite propagation speed. Light, sound, and gravity waves all have this property.
 
Ah, I see. So the frequency of the gravity wave would not affect its strength?

I was wondering if gravity waves would behave like photons, i.e., the frequency - not amplitude - would determine the force it exerted on a particle.
 
Frequency would determine the energy of individual gravitons.

However, in practice the field of a gravitational wave would contain many gravitons. The amplitude of the field would determine the force exerted on a mass.

Similarly, it is the electric field amplitude that determines the force that a laser beam exerts on, say, an electron.
 
Redbelly98 said:
The frequency of the wave indicates the rotation rate of the object emitting it.

By "rotation", do you mean about an axis through the object's center of gravity, something akin to an orbit, or both?

Regards,

Bill
 
Redbelly98 said:
The frequency of the wave indicates the rotation rate of the object emitting it.
I think in GR it is incorrect to think that gravitational waves are emitted by objects. Gravitational waves exist due to the changing relationships between multiple objects.
 
MeJennifer said:
Gravitational waves exist due to the changing relationships between multiple objects.

I think that is sufficiently vague to cover what I was alluding to. :smile:

Regards,

Bill
 
Antenna and MeJen,

I should probably have used the word "system" rather than object. At any rate, I was making a general comment to answer the op's question about the meaning of frequency.

As to the source of gravity waves that people are trying to detect, I'll defer to somebody more knowledgeable than I:
https://www.physicsforums.com/showpost.php?p=1696992&postcount=5

Regards,

Mark
 
Well, what I (the op :)) was getting at was would an object moving very fast either toward or away from us exert a different instantaneous force than if it were stationary, due to doppler shift of the gravity waves?

If I understand Redbelly correctly, the answer is no.
 
  • #10
Redbelly98 said:
As to the source of gravity waves that people are trying to detect, I'll defer to somebody more knowledgeable than I:
https://www.physicsforums.com/showpost.php?p=1696992&postcount=5

The "mountain range" on a spinning object is a pretty good example of what I was thinking of when I said "akin to an orbit". I might even wager that such an oscillation would yield the highest frequency waves.

Regards,

Bill
 
  • #11
peter0302 said:
Well, what I (the op :)) was getting at was would an object moving very fast either toward or away from us exert a different instantaneous force than if it were stationary, due to doppler shift of the gravity waves?

If I understand Redbelly correctly, the answer is no.

I think E=hf still holds (which would imply the opposite), but I'll defer to someone more knowledgeable than myself.

Regards,

Bill
 

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