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## Main Question or Discussion Point

Is there any similarity between the zeros of a function and the zeros of its derivative? That is, if

A = set of all x such that f(x) = 0

B = set of all x such that f'(x) = 0

then is there any pattern to finding A if B is known (or vice versa)?

Thanks!

A = set of all x such that f(x) = 0

B = set of all x such that f'(x) = 0

then is there any pattern to finding A if B is known (or vice versa)?

Thanks!