Perhaps my question is not totally clear.
In H=(1/u)B-M, is H the applied field, or the total field, after the contributions of the magnetic material? And if it is the total field, how does this do us any good? I have always heard that H is what you "set on the dial."
So let's say that I have a sphere (radius R) of permeability \mu and I apply a field H = 10 Oe. Would it be correct to say that the field around the sphere is not uniformly 10 Oe, because the sphere changes its value? (And also correct that B = H?)
If so, what good is H=(1/\mu_0)B-M?
Say you have a paramagnetic (or diamagnetic) sphere (or some other shape) and you apply a field of H = 10 Oe. Now, we have H=(1/\mu)B-M.
That would indicate that outside of the material, B and H are essentially the same, right? B = 10 Gauss, outside of the material.
But shouldn't the...