Significance Levels and Probability

AI Thread Summary
The discussion revolves around the interpretation of significance levels in hypothesis testing, specifically in the context of a study comparing variables between schizophrenic and non-schizophrenic individuals. The probability of one specific test showing a significant difference at the 5% level is indeed 5%. Given that 77 tests were conducted, it is expected that approximately 3.85 tests would yield significant results purely by chance, making it unsurprising that two tests were significant. The conversation emphasizes understanding significance levels as the long-term probability of making a type I error. Overall, the participants are seeking clarity on these statistical concepts.
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Homework Statement



A group of psychologists once measured 77 variables on a sample of schizophrenic people and a sample of people who were not schizophrenic. They compared the two samples using 77 separate significance tests. Two of these tests were significant at the 5% level. Suppose that there is in fact no difference in any of the variables between people who are and people who are not schizophrenic, so that all 77 null hypotheses are true.

A) What is the probability that one specific test shows a difference significant at the 5% level?

B) Why is is not surprising that 2 of the 77 tests were significant at the 5% level?

Homework Equations



N/A

The Attempt at a Solution



I know this is a conceptual problem, but that's why I'm not getting it. I can do a problem if there are numbers, but I don't understand the concept of it I guess. If someone could just give me a general direction of where I'm supposed to go/what I'm supposed to do, I think I can get it.
 
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I've come up with an answer for both A and B, but I'm not sure if they're right.

A) The probability is 5%.
B) It's not surprising because 5% of 77 is 3.85, so we expect almost 4 observations to be significant at the 5% level. These two observations could be two of those four.

If these are right or if these are wrong, I could still use a little explanation because I think I have a loose grasp on what's going on, but not a strong one.

Thanks :)
 
Yes to both - one way (not the only way, but the appropriate way for this set of problems) to think of a significance level is that is the "long term" probability of making a type I error. the point of these two questions is to interpret it that way - and you did.
 
Alrighty, thanks!
 
I tried to combine those 2 formulas but it didn't work. I tried using another case where there are 2 red balls and 2 blue balls only so when combining the formula I got ##\frac{(4-1)!}{2!2!}=\frac{3}{2}## which does not make sense. Is there any formula to calculate cyclic permutation of identical objects or I have to do it by listing all the possibilities? Thanks
Essentially I just have this problem that I'm stuck on, on a sheet about complex numbers: Show that, for ##|r|<1,## $$1+r\cos(x)+r^2\cos(2x)+r^3\cos(3x)...=\frac{1-r\cos(x)}{1-2r\cos(x)+r^2}$$ My first thought was to express it as a geometric series, where the real part of the sum of the series would be the series you see above: $$1+re^{ix}+r^2e^{2ix}+r^3e^{3ix}...$$ The sum of this series is just: $$\frac{(re^{ix})^n-1}{re^{ix} - 1}$$ I'm having some trouble trying to figure out what to...

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