In reviewing some of the literature on the Stirling engine, it appears that the term "reversible" when applied to the Stirling cycle did not mean reversible in the sense of ΔS = 0 but reversible in the sense that its direction can be reversed so that by adding work it operates as a refrigerator. This appears to be how Lord Kelvin used the term.
The cycle requires heat flow either into and out of the gas during all four parts of the cycle. Work is done only on two parts of the cycle, 1 and 3 (with 1 being the isothermal expansion). The efficiency is:
\eta = out/in = (W_{1-2} - W_{3-4})/Q_h
Now the numerator is:
nRT_h\ln\frac{V_2}{V_1} - nRT_c\ln\frac{V_3}{V_4}
Since V4 = V1 and V2 = V3 (isochoric parts) this is just:
nR\ln\frac{V_2}{V_1}(T_h - T_c)
Since heat flows into the (ideal) gas during 4 and 1, Qh is:
Q_h = Q_4 + Q_1 = \Delta U_{4-1} + W_{1-2} = nC_v(T_h-T_c) + nRT_h\ln\frac{V_2}{V_1}
So the efficiency is:
\eta = W/Q_h = \frac{nR\ln\frac{V_2}{V_1}(T_h - T_c)}{nC_v(T_h-T_c) + nRT_h\ln\frac{V_2}{V_1}}
This reduces to:
\eta = W/Q_h = \frac{(T_h - T_c)}{\frac{C_v(T_h-T_c)}{R\ln\frac{V_2}{V_1}} + T_h}
And this is the problem. For a reversible cycle we know that Qc/Tc = -Qh/Th, so efficiency is just:
\eta = W/Q_h = \frac{(T_h - T_c)}{T_h}
Two reversible engines have to have the same efficiency. So if the Stirling cycle is "reversible" in the modern thermodynamic sense, that Q4 has to disappear. As I said, if you can show me how it disappears, I'll buy you a steak dinner.
AM