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Is this equivalent to the Pythagorean Theorem?

 
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Jun29-12, 04:47 PM   #1
 

Is this equivalent to the Pythagorean Theorem?


So I was reading up on the Pythagoreans, and I came across this page: http://www.math.ufl.edu/~rcrew/texts/pythagoras.html.

I don't see the reasoning behind this statement.

"Since AB=AD+DB, adding these equations yields

A(B2)=A(C2)+C(B2)
which is the Pythagorean theorem."

I tried some simple algebra on this statement and couldn't get Pythag to fall out of it. Can someone figure out a derivation for this?
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Jun29-12, 05:13 PM   #2
 
That's not what the page says. It says,

[tex]AB^2 = AC^2 + CB^2[/tex]

A, B, and C are not variables. [itex]AB[/itex] represents the length between points A and B. You should read [itex]AB^2[/itex] as a single length being squared.
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euclidean geometry, pythagorean theorem

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