- #1
daivinhtran
- 68
- 0
We know that d(cos^-1 (x/a))/dx = -1/sqrt(a^2 - x^2) (assuming a and x are positive)
So...Why the integral of -1/sqrt(a^2 - x^2) is not equal to (cos^-1 (x/a)) + C?
Instead, my teacher says it has to be -(sin^-1 (x/a)) + C because integral of 1/sqrt(a^2 - x^2) is sin^-1 (x/a) + C...(only put the negative sign in)
She doesn't really explain though...(when I ask)
So...Why the integral of -1/sqrt(a^2 - x^2) is not equal to (cos^-1 (x/a)) + C?
Instead, my teacher says it has to be -(sin^-1 (x/a)) + C because integral of 1/sqrt(a^2 - x^2) is sin^-1 (x/a) + C...(only put the negative sign in)
She doesn't really explain though...(when I ask)
Last edited: