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Math Q&A Game |
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| Dec12-05, 06:39 AM | #69 |
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Math Q&A Game
It doesn't work for arbitrary [itex]c[/itex].
If [itex]f(x)=cx[/itex] then [itex]f(\frac{xy}{2}) = c \frac{xy}{2}[/itex] and [itex]\frac{f(x)f(y)}{2} = c^2 \frac{ xy}2[/itex]. Equating these two yields [itex]c=c^2[/itex] so the only solutions for [itex]c[/itex] are the two Matt has already found. |
| Dec12-05, 08:12 AM | #70 |
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Yes, I see that.
Can you prove that the only possible solutions are [tex] f(x)=x [/tex] and [tex] f(x)=0[/tex] from the given conditions? Sorry for the poorly worded question. |
| Dec12-05, 01:49 PM | #71 |
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| Dec12-05, 07:36 PM | #72 |
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From f(2x/2) = f(x), we get that either:
a) f = 0, OR b) f(2) = 2 From case b), using that f(0) = f(0)f(x)/2 for all x, we get either: b1) f(0) = 0, OR b2) f(x) = 2 for all x b2) is impossible given the condition that f'(1) = f(1), so we have two cases overall: a) f = 0 b) f(0) = 0 and f(2) = 2 In general, it holds that f(x) = +/- f(-x) since f(xx/2) = f((-x)(-x)/2). In fact, by looking at f((-x)y/2) = f(x(-y)/2), we can make an even stronger claim that either for all x, f(x) = f(-x) or for all x, f(x) = -f(-x). Note that this gives a solution f(x) = |x| which satisfies the criteria (it is not required that f be differentiable everywhere, only at 1 is necessary) but is neither 0 nor identity. Suppose f(x) = 0 for some non-zero x. Then for all y, f(y) = f(x(2y/x)/2) = 0, so f(0) = 0, and either f(x) is non-zero for all other x, or f(x) is zero for all other x: a) f = 0 b) f(0) = 0, f(2) = 2, f is either odd or even, and f(x) is non-zero for x non-zero. |
| Dec12-05, 07:50 PM | #73 |
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| Dec13-05, 01:51 PM | #74 |
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siddharth, you asked:
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| Dec13-05, 03:54 PM | #75 |
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Stupid brain. Must read before posting.
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| Dec13-05, 11:16 PM | #76 |
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So, other than f(x)=x, f(x)=|x| and f(x)=0, is there a forth solution?
In general, we are not even assuming continuity except at x=1, at which point f is also differentiable? |
| Dec14-05, 12:52 AM | #77 |
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[tex] f(x) = 0 [/tex] , [tex] f(x) = |x| [/tex] ,ie ( f(x) = x for x>0 and f(x)=-x for x<0 ) I hope this is the final edit to the question. Can you prove that the only solutions are f(x) = 0 and f(x) = |x| from the given conditions? But I think it is necessary for the condition that f(x) is differentiable at all points except x=0 to be given. So you are given that f(x) is differentiable at all points except x=0. I hope that the question is still clear and I did not confuse everyone too much |
| Dec14-05, 07:32 AM | #78 |
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I thought the setter was supposed to know the answer so that they could agree upon the first correct response? Without imposing some more conditions I don't see that you can conclude there won't be some more answers. And as you keep changing the question we presume that you don't know the answer, which makes it a little unfair on those attempting it.
If we were to require that the function had a taylor series with radius of convergence infinity about 0 then you could get the answer but that would necessarily exclude AKG's answer. Didn't the original question ask for f(x) for positive x only? Because then, assuming that the function is smooth in some neighborhood of 1, you can get the answer since every number is nth the power of a number close to 1. |
| Dec14-05, 08:53 AM | #79 |
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I thought we have a much more interesting question... it would be a lot more fun to assume nothing about continuity and differentiability (except at x=1)... I think we can prove continuity everywhere and differentiability except possibly at x=0 with the assumption of differentiability at x=1.
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| Dec14-05, 08:59 AM | #80 |
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We have a question with no known answer, that doens't really make it useful for this particular thread.
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| Dec14-05, 10:12 AM | #81 |
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Besides, I wanted to revive interest in this thread. From the given condition [tex] f(\frac{x+y}{2}) = [f(x) f(1+\frac{y}{x})]/2 [/tex] so [tex] x \neq 0 [/tex] Here put y=0. So, [tex] f(\frac{x}{2})=\frac{f(x)f(1)}{2} [/tex] ie, [tex] 2f(x)=f(2x)f(1) [/tex] Now [tex] f'(x) = \lim_{h\rightarrow 0} \frac{f(x+h) - f(x)}{h} [/tex] [tex] = \lim_{h\rightarrow 0} \frac{f(\frac{2x+2h}{2}) - f(x)}{h} [/tex] [tex]= \lim_{h\rightarrow 0} \frac{f(2x)f(1+\frac{h}{x}) - 2f(x)}{2h} [/tex] Since [tex] 2f(x)=f(2x)f(1) [/tex] we have, [tex]=(\frac{f(2x)}{2x}) \lim_{h\rightarrow 0} \frac{f(1+\frac{h}{x}) - f(1)}{\frac{h}{x}} [/tex] So, we have [tex] f'(x) = \frac{f(2x)}{2x} f'(1) [/tex] Since [tex] 2f(x)=f(2x)f(1) [/tex] and [tex] f(1)=f'(1) [/tex] [tex] f'(x)=\frac{f(x)}{x} [/tex] [tex] f(x)=|cx| [/tex] Hence, by substituting back into the original condition, the only solutions are [tex] f(x) = |x| [/tex] and [tex] f(x) = 0 [/tex] |
| Dec14-05, 10:32 AM | #82 |
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Your 'solution' somhow omits the identity function and appears to claim that |x| is everywhere differentiable, and makes untold assumptions about f
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| Dec14-05, 10:38 AM | #83 |
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That's why I changed the question, so that f(x) is differentiable everywhere except x=0 was given
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| Dec14-05, 10:41 AM | #84 |
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Firstly I must admit I've given up on rereading the new assumptions you keep making, and secondly you conclude f(x)=|x| is a solution. That is not an everywhere differentiable function, and you *do not conclude* that f(x)=x is a solution. Read your own proof and its conclusion that states the solutions are f(x)=|x| and f(x)=0!
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| Dec14-05, 10:47 AM | #85 |
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