- #1
mnb96
- 715
- 5
Hello,
it is possible to prove that the Mellin transform of a function f(x) can be expressed in terms of Fourier transform, namely:
[tex]\mathcal{M}\{f(x)\}(s) = \mathcal{F}\{f(e^{-x}\}(-is)[/tex]
I am not convinced of that imaginary unit i as argument of the Fourier transform. In fact, since the argument (-is) is imaginary, that is not a Fourier transform anymore.
I don't see I could compute a Mellin transform using a Fourier transform. Am I missing something?
it is possible to prove that the Mellin transform of a function f(x) can be expressed in terms of Fourier transform, namely:
[tex]\mathcal{M}\{f(x)\}(s) = \mathcal{F}\{f(e^{-x}\}(-is)[/tex]
I am not convinced of that imaginary unit i as argument of the Fourier transform. In fact, since the argument (-is) is imaginary, that is not a Fourier transform anymore.
I don't see I could compute a Mellin transform using a Fourier transform. Am I missing something?