Euler's solution to the Basel problem

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In summary, Euler used a method of writing out sin(x) as an infinite series and dividing by x to solve a problem. He also utilized a product that converges and is zero at nonzero integers. Euler's identity was only conjectured and could not be rigorously proven. He was also able to perform the same method using cos(x) and found a similar result. To solve this, he used a trick involving Zeta(2) to find the sum of inverse squares of odd numbers, resulting in Zeta(2) being equal to pi^2/6.
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Can someone find a good explanation of how Euler did it? I can't seem to find anything article or whatnot that carefully explains what he did to solve the problem. From what I can gather, he seems to follow a method of writing out sin(x) as an infinite series(taylor polynomial) and divides by x and from there I get lost in the mishmash. Why does he even choose to use sin(x) and not cos(x) or tan(x) for that matter?
 
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The function

sin(pi x)/(pi x)

is zero at the nonzero integers, so it should be equal to:

sin(pi x)/(pi x) = product over n of (1-x^2/n^2)

The right hand side is a product that converges and it is zero when x isa nonzero integer. The normalization is correct, because for x = 1 it is 1 while the limit for x to 1 of the left hand side is also 1. So, the above indentity looks correct (but you can't rigorously prove that, Euler only conjectured the identity).

The coefficent of x^2 of the left hand side is:

-pi^2/6

And from the right hand side it is minus the sum of 1/n^2 from n = 1 to infinity. To get an x^2 term, you need to take it from one factor of the infinite product, say the nth, and then you need to take the 1 from all other factors. You then get -1/n^2, and all n from 1 to infinity contribute.

Now, you can just as well do this using cos(pi x). The zeroes are at x = (n+1/2), so you would conjecture that:

cos(pi x) = Product over n of [1-x^2/(n+1/2)^2]

Normalization is correct as can be seen from putting x = 1 on bith sides. Extracting the coefficient of x^2 gives:

-pi^2/2 = -Sum over n from n= 0 to infinity of 1/(n+1/2)^2

You can rewrite this as:

sum over n 1/(2n+1)^2 = pi^2/8

You then use the following trick. If we put:

Zeta(2) = sum from n = 1 to infinity of 1/n^2

Then clearly the sum of the inverse squares of the even numbers only is:

sum from n = 1 to infinity of 1/(2n)^2 = 1/4 Zeta(2)

So, the sum over only the inverse squares if the odd numbers must be
3/4 Zeta(2). So we have:

pi^2/8 = 3/4 Zeta(2) -------->

Zeta(2) = pi^2/6.
 
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What is Euler's solution to the Basel problem?

Euler's solution to the Basel problem is a mathematical proof that the sum of the reciprocals of the squares of all natural numbers converges to a finite value, specifically π²/6.

Why is Euler's solution to the Basel problem significant?

Euler's solution to the Basel problem was significant because it was the first time a method was devised to calculate the sum of an infinite series. It also helped to establish the field of mathematical analysis.

What was the significance of the Basel problem in mathematics?

The Basel problem was significant in mathematics because it challenged mathematicians to solve a problem that had been unsolved for over a century. It also led to the development of new mathematical techniques and laid the foundation for future discoveries in the field.

What are the implications of Euler's solution to the Basel problem?

Euler's solution to the Basel problem has many implications in mathematics, including the study of infinite series and the concept of convergence. It also has applications in other fields such as physics and engineering.

How did Euler come up with his solution to the Basel problem?

Euler used a technique called analytic continuation, which involves extending a function beyond its original domain, to derive his solution to the Basel problem. He also used the concept of complex numbers and their properties to arrive at his solution.

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