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TonyAlmeidaAtLSE
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In the asset market equilibrium and Arrow-Debreu equilibrium, for each every agent, the budge constraint has the form of inequality (not strictly), however, Asset market clear is the aggregate asset is zero and market clear is aggregate endowment euqals the aggregate consumption. I wonder if we do Not assume the increasing utility function (local nonsatiation), is it possible that the budget constraint is Not binding while the condition of asset market clear and market clear satisfied respectively, say, some individual's budget constraint is Not binding while the aggregate consumption is equivalent to aggregate endowment?