- #1
kdinser
- 337
- 2
Ok, this is kind of embarrassing. I'm halfway through calc II and while the squeeze theorem makes sense to me when I read it, I don't see how it's applied. I feel like I must be missing something very fundamental for this to not make sense.
[tex]\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty}(cosx)/x = 0 [/tex]
What are the 2 functions that are squeezing the 3rd? Once you know the 2 functions do just evaluate one of them at the limit?
Is it as simple as just splitting up the function? [tex](1/x)(cos x)[/tex] and then evaluating [tex]1/x[/tex] at infinity. That would certainly yield 0.
[tex]\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty}(cosx)/x = 0 [/tex]
What are the 2 functions that are squeezing the 3rd? Once you know the 2 functions do just evaluate one of them at the limit?
Is it as simple as just splitting up the function? [tex](1/x)(cos x)[/tex] and then evaluating [tex]1/x[/tex] at infinity. That would certainly yield 0.