- #1
beaf123
- 41
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Back to how income differences is explained in neoclassical theory, one can ask the question why GDP/capita is $5200 in Morocco and $35 500 in France. Real GDP per capita has grown at a rate of about 3.5% from 2008– 2012, GDP/capita in France grew in the same period at a rate of 1.1%. (http://data.worldbank.org/indicator/NY.GDP.PCAP.KD.ZG/countries/1W-XQ-EG-SY-IR-SA?display=default)
If this holds up GDP/ capita in Morocco will be the same as the one in France in X years.
So I can't find the X:
I have tried:
5200e^ln(1.035)t = 35 500e^ln(1.01)t
But I can't solve it..:-(
Hope someone can help me!:)
If this holds up GDP/ capita in Morocco will be the same as the one in France in X years.
So I can't find the X:
I have tried:
5200e^ln(1.035)t = 35 500e^ln(1.01)t
But I can't solve it..:-(
Hope someone can help me!:)