- #1
kartoshka
- 5
- 0
I'm about one week into a Calc II course, and I realized that I have no idea why finding the area under the curve (integrating) would be the inverse operation of finding slope (differentiating). I get that they are opposites, but not why that should be the case... it's not at all intuitive. Is there some sort of intrinsic relationship between slope and area?
[Sorry if this question is poorly worded; I'm having a hard time putting my confusion into words.]
[Sorry if this question is poorly worded; I'm having a hard time putting my confusion into words.]