- #1
Xabrewulf
- 2
- 0
Many sources on the web claim that when moving a conductor through a magnetic field, an emf is produced.
However, some sources claim, that the intensity of the magnetic field also needs to change in order to produce a voltage over the conductor, for example:
http://www.allaboutcircuits.com/vol_1/chpt_14/5.html
What's the deal? Where lies the misconception?
In my understanding, when you move a conductor through a uniform magnetic field, you have no rate of change of flux, hence you have no emf produced.
Is this correct? Or am I wrong?
However, some sources claim, that the intensity of the magnetic field also needs to change in order to produce a voltage over the conductor, for example:
http://www.allaboutcircuits.com/vol_1/chpt_14/5.html
What's the deal? Where lies the misconception?
In my understanding, when you move a conductor through a uniform magnetic field, you have no rate of change of flux, hence you have no emf produced.
Is this correct? Or am I wrong?