- #1
ezcheez
- 5
- 0
I have a very basic question regarding mutual inductance.
Consider a basic square loop with two coils wound on opposite sides from each other, with coil one excited while coil two si left open circuited. The total flux linking coil 1 is
Φ11 = Φl1+Φ21
where
Φ11 is the total flux linking coil 1
Φl1 is the leakage flux and
Φ21 is the mutual flux linking both coils
My question is why there is mutual flux if the second coil is open-circuited, in other words, why is Φ21 non-zero? I would expect flux through the iron core due to coil one but how/why does coil two contribute to this flux?
Consider a basic square loop with two coils wound on opposite sides from each other, with coil one excited while coil two si left open circuited. The total flux linking coil 1 is
Φ11 = Φl1+Φ21
where
Φ11 is the total flux linking coil 1
Φl1 is the leakage flux and
Φ21 is the mutual flux linking both coils
My question is why there is mutual flux if the second coil is open-circuited, in other words, why is Φ21 non-zero? I would expect flux through the iron core due to coil one but how/why does coil two contribute to this flux?