- #1
khamaar
- 14
- 0
Whats the Concept behind "change of electric/magnetic flux"?
What i mean to say is that, i understand the concept of "change of distance", "change of time" and other changes and other time rates...
but the "time rate of change of electric flux" really confuses me. Does change of flux mean increase or decrease in the number of electric lines passing through some body? or does it mean the "movement" electric lines through it?...
i mean, if a conductor, say a rod moves thru a UNIFORM magnetic field, there would be transient polarization of the rod. (one end would get slightly positive, the other negative)...So its obvious that there was some instantaneous induced emf in the rod, if so, then the concept of changing magnetic flux as the increase or decrease in the number of lines of magnetic induction (which my teacher provided) fails here...Because faraday's law states
emf= -N (change of flux)/ (time)
so my teacher's concept would say that emf should be zero( because there is no increase or decrease in the number of lines of magnetic induction ,since the magnetic field is uniform)...but still we have said that instantaneous emf existed.
so what's the point here?...if my teacher's concept about the change of magnetic/electric flux is wrong...which is the right concept?
so if u apply the i
What i mean to say is that, i understand the concept of "change of distance", "change of time" and other changes and other time rates...
but the "time rate of change of electric flux" really confuses me. Does change of flux mean increase or decrease in the number of electric lines passing through some body? or does it mean the "movement" electric lines through it?...
i mean, if a conductor, say a rod moves thru a UNIFORM magnetic field, there would be transient polarization of the rod. (one end would get slightly positive, the other negative)...So its obvious that there was some instantaneous induced emf in the rod, if so, then the concept of changing magnetic flux as the increase or decrease in the number of lines of magnetic induction (which my teacher provided) fails here...Because faraday's law states
emf= -N (change of flux)/ (time)
so my teacher's concept would say that emf should be zero( because there is no increase or decrease in the number of lines of magnetic induction ,since the magnetic field is uniform)...but still we have said that instantaneous emf existed.
so what's the point here?...if my teacher's concept about the change of magnetic/electric flux is wrong...which is the right concept?
so if u apply the i