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In mathematics, a normal number is a real number whose infinite sequence of digits is distributed uniformly in the sense that each of the digit values has the same frequency, also all digits are equally likely. Wikipedia says that it is widely believed that pi is normal, but a proof remains elusive.
What about my "proof"? It seems impossible to me that by counting the endless digits of pi we could end up at the following result:
pi=3.1415926......9999999999999999999999999...endless string of 9's
if this would be possible then pi could have an exact value, because we could round up the endless
string of 9's into 100000... And pi would have an exact value, containing a finite number
of decimals, because we could ignore the last 0's, in other words we could cut the decimals of pi
without making an error.
It is rather more likely that pi really is a normal number, and the digits of pi are "random":
http://info.sjc.ox.ac.uk/users/gualtieri/Is Pi normal.htm
What about my "proof"? It seems impossible to me that by counting the endless digits of pi we could end up at the following result:
pi=3.1415926......9999999999999999999999999...endless string of 9's
if this would be possible then pi could have an exact value, because we could round up the endless
string of 9's into 100000... And pi would have an exact value, containing a finite number
of decimals, because we could ignore the last 0's, in other words we could cut the decimals of pi
without making an error.
It is rather more likely that pi really is a normal number, and the digits of pi are "random":
http://info.sjc.ox.ac.uk/users/gualtieri/Is Pi normal.htm