- #1
Дьявол
- 365
- 0
Hello, again!
I got one very interesting question.
We got three archers, and the probability of the ones to hit the target is:
A1, A2, A3.
What if the task is to find the probability that the target will be hit at least from one archer.
So at least one archer to hit the target.
Is it P(A1 U A2 U A3) = A1 + A2 +A3 ?
Or [tex](1- P(\bar{A_{1}} \cap \bar{A_{2}} \cap \bar{A_{3}})) = 1 - \bar{A_{1}}* \bar{A_{2}} * \bar{A_{3}}[/tex], where [tex]\bar{A}[/tex] is opposite of A?
Or maybe, both are valid?
Thanks in advance.
I got one very interesting question.
We got three archers, and the probability of the ones to hit the target is:
A1, A2, A3.
What if the task is to find the probability that the target will be hit at least from one archer.
So at least one archer to hit the target.
Is it P(A1 U A2 U A3) = A1 + A2 +A3 ?
Or [tex](1- P(\bar{A_{1}} \cap \bar{A_{2}} \cap \bar{A_{3}})) = 1 - \bar{A_{1}}* \bar{A_{2}} * \bar{A_{3}}[/tex], where [tex]\bar{A}[/tex] is opposite of A?
Or maybe, both are valid?
Thanks in advance.