Welcome to Tough Inductions! Get Ready to Challenge Yourself!

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The discussion revolves around the challenge of finding tough induction problems, with participants sharing various mathematical induction exercises. A user expresses interest in proving log(2) through induction, prompting hints and discussions about the problem's complexity. Trigonometric induction problems are also proposed, with participants discussing their solutions and methods. The conversation highlights the versatility of induction in different mathematical contexts, including geometry and calculus. Overall, the thread fosters a collaborative environment for tackling challenging induction proofs.
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tough induction!

hey !

I'm new here... :redface:

I'm looking for a really tough induction!

I will appreaciate who will write here some inductions..

thanks...


* I JUST LOVVVVVE THOSE SMILIES ! :-p
 
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Ok

Prove, by induction, that

log(2) = \sum_{n=1}^k \frac{(-1)^{n-1}}{n} +(-1)^k 2\int_0^1 \frac{t^{2k+1}dt}{1+t^2}

A hint: start by showing log(2) = 2\int_0^1\frac{tdt}{1+t^2}

EDIT: Does anyone here know why my first latex image isn't working?

EDIT: I appear to have gotten it to work... never mind
 
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wow! That's great!
thank you very much.

Does anyone have a trigonometric induction?
 
Have you solved Office_Shredder's one?

Ok, here's a pretty good problem in trigonometry. There are many ways to go about solving it, and Induction is a way to go.

Problem:
Prove that:
1 + 2 \sum_{k = 1} ^ n \left( \cos (k x) \right) = \frac{\sin \left[ \left( n + \frac{1}{2} \right) x \right]}{\sin \left( \frac{x}{2} \right)}
 
Thank you very much!

About Office_Shredder 's induction I think it is wrong.. It must be ln(2) instead of log(2).

Am I wrong?
 
It's common for mathematicians to use log(x) to mean ln(x).

Here's another exercise:

Prove that
\sum_{i=1}^n \tan (r\theta) \tan ((r+1)\theta) = \tan ((n+1)\theta) \cot \theta \; - \, n \, - \, 1
 
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VietDao29 said:
Have you solved Office_Shredder's one?

Ok, here's a pretty good problem in trigonometry. There are many ways to go about solving it, and Induction is a way to go.

Problem:
Prove that:
1 + 2 \sum_{k = 1} ^ n \left( \cos (k x) \right) = \frac{\sin \left[ \left( n + \frac{1}{2} \right) x \right]}{\sin \left( \frac{x}{2} \right)}

Just to point out: that is actually a really nice result and constitutes a clever proof of the integral of sin x.
 
OK. Thanks. :smile:
 
Thanks for the problems :) managed to solve the last 2 problems, but the one involving log2, how do you go about doing it?
 
  • #10
Spoiler for the log 2 problem:

For the log2 problem, it's trivial for k=1. For the inductive step, multiply inside the integral by (1+t2-t2 and see what you can get (if you're at all like me, you spent an hour trying to do integration by parts before feeling stupid :p)[/color]
 
  • #11
Hmmm cos I was thinking induction is prove for all cases of n..

but i guess this usually comes up as a follow up question to an induction question? something like an inference question after the induction is done..
 
  • #12
No truewt... prove that the relation is true for any k. So you show it's true for k=1, then show if it's true for k=r, it's true for k=r+1 via the hint I gave (or on your own of course)
 
  • #13
Hmmm I see thanks. I'll go try it now.
 
  • #14
Office_Shredder said:
Spoiler for the log 2 problem:

For the log2 problem, it's trivial for k=1. For the inductive step, multiply inside the integral by (1+t2-t2 and see what you can get (if you're at all like me, you spent an hour trying to do integration by parts before feeling stupid :p)[/color]

What do you mean by trivial?
 
  • #15
Thanks. Solved the log2 problem. But it is still really ln 2 :P
 
  • #16
shirel said:
hey !

I'm new here... :redface:

I'm looking for a really tough induction!

I will appreaciate who will write here some inductions..

thanks...


* I JUST LOVVVVVE THOSE SMILIES ! :-p
Here's something related to induction. Find a statement P(n) about the natural number n such that for all n, if P(n) is true then P(n+1) is true but P(n) is false for all n.
 
  • #17
prove by induction, the moduli space of curves of genus g has dimension 3g-3, if g > 1.prove by induction the torelli map (taking a curve to its jacobian) from the moduli space of curves of genus g to the moduli space of abelian varieties of dimension g is generically injective, for all g.

find by induction, the volume of a sphere of dimension d, assuming the area formula for a circle.

find by induction the number of vertices of an n dimensional cube.
 
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  • #18
hey, at least the last one is easy. the first is an exercise in intuition about moduli of curves acquiring singularities, and the second an easy version of some research i have done in a similar case. the third one is a good calculus problem.

the point here is that induction works also in geometry, and is very powerful. these questions give the flavor of the kind of algebraic geometry research i have been involved in.
realistically, try the 4th one first, and then the third one, (perhaps this one should be called a recursive calculation).
 
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  • #19
Ok, for the third one, an n-sphere is given by the equation:

\sum_{i=0}^{n} x_{i}^{2} = r^{2}

and the area of a circle (or 1-sphere) is given by pi*r2. Then the basis of induction is to find the volume of a 2-sphere in terms of the volume of a 1-sphere. Consider the equation of the 2-sphere for different values of x2 (note that |x2| cannot be greater than r):

x_{0}^{2} + x_{1}^{2} = r^{2} - x_{2}^{2} = R^{2}

It's just the equation of a 1-sphere with radius R given by

R = \sqrt{r^{2} - x_{2}^{2}}

The volume of the 2-sphere of radius r is just the sum of the volumes of 1-spheres as we range through possible values of x2, or:

\int_{-r}^{r} \pi(r^{2} - x_{2}^{2}) dx_{2}

For the step of induction we have to show that the volume of an (n+1)-sphere can be found in terms of the volume of an n-sphere. Consider the equation of an (n+1)-sphere of radius r as we range through values of xn+1. Again, it's just the equation of an n-sphere with a radius of

R = \sqrt{r^{2} - x_{n+1}^{2}}

Then the volume of the (n+1)-sphere is the sum of the volumes of the n-spheres as we range through all possible values of xn+1, or:

\int_{-r}^{r} V_{n}( \sqrt{r^{2} - x_{n+1}^{2}}) dx_{n+1}

Where Vn(x) is the volume of an n-sphere of radius x.
 
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  • #20
Here is an easy one: Prove by induction, the Binomial Theorem.
 
  • #21
I don't know if induction is the best way to do this...
Prove that for n and k integers with 0 <= k <= n, that the binomial coefficient formula n!/(k!(n-k)!) is an integer.
 
  • #22
truewt said:
What do you mean by trivial?

It shouldn't be tough at all given the hint I posted...
 
  • #23
that looks good john duck
 
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