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Mean value inequality?

by quasar987
Tags: inequality
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Jun10-08, 02:09 PM
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The statement of the mean value inequality (MVI) is as follows:

"Let A be an open convex subset of R^n and let f:A-->R^m be continuously differentiable and such that ||Df(x)(y)||<=M||y|| for all x in A and y in R^n (i.e. the family
[itex](Df(x))_{x \in A}[/itex] is uniformly lipschitz of constant M on R^n). Then for any x_1, x_2 in A, we have ||f(x_2)-f(x_1)||<=M||x_2-x_1||."

If m=1, then this is just the mean value theorem (MVT) plus the triangle inequality. But otherwise, the MVT applied to each component of f separately only leads ||f(x_2)-f(x_1)||<=mM||x_2-x_1||. So the proof suggested by the book I'm reading is that we write f(x_2)-f(x_1) using the fondamental theorem of calculus (FTC) as


and then use the triangle inequality for integrals to get the result.

But notice that the integrand is an element of R^m. So by the above, they certainly mean


which does not, to my knowledge, allows for a better conclusion than ||f(x_2)-f(x_1)||<=mM||x_2-x_1||.

Am I mistaken?

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