Thermodynamic Proof: Show PV^k=constant

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on proving that for an isentropic process, the relationship Pv^k=constant holds true. Participants express confusion regarding a substitution in the proof that treats k as a constant, questioning its intuitiveness and applicability to real gases. The conversation highlights the distinction between ideal gases, where k is constant, and polyatomic gases, where k may vary due to changing degrees of freedom. There is also mention of using Maxwell relations and the cyclic properties of partial derivatives to support the proof. Overall, the participants seek clarity on the reasoning behind treating k as constant in the context of the proof.
cmmcnamara
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Homework Statement



Show that for an isentropic compression/expansion process that Pv^k=constant


Homework Equations



The usual thermodynamic potentials, maxwell relations


The Attempt at a Solution



The solution I am arriving at follows that of the solutions manual, but there is a substitution they use in the proof that is non-intuitive to me.

s=s(P,v)
ds=\left(\frac{∂s}{∂P}\right)_vdP+\left(\frac{∂s}{∂v}\right)_Pdv

Since the process is isentropic, ds=0, and using maxwell substitutions we arrive at:

dP-\left(\frac{∂P}{∂v}\right)_sdv=0

This is where our proofs are the same, they then diverge by making the substitution, and dividing by pressure:

k=-\frac{v}{P}\left(\frac{∂P}{∂v}\right)_s
\frac{dP}{P}+k\frac{dv}{v}=0
lnP+klnv=constant
Pv^k=constant

I don't find their substitution very intuitive. They describe it as the isentropic expansion coefficient. I do not understand how they can treat it as a constant however in the differential equation. Likewise, I feel that by their solution, if k can be treated as a constant then I would expect the partial differential component could be treated as such as well and the portion I had completed could be used to arrive at an algebraically different equation that could be rearranged but I don't see it. Can anyone help me understand the reasoning behind all of this?

NOTE: Later as a part of the problem it asks to prove that k reduces to the ideal gas ratio, for an ideal gas. I also tried working it from that angle but to no avail.
 
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Are you sure they are claiming this more generally than for an ideal gas?
I remember that even for Van der Vaals Gases this expression has to be modified in a way similar to the equation of state!
 
Yes I am sure it is. The latter part of the proof is shown to be proven through further maxwell relations coupled with the cyclic properties of partial derivatives. I just don't understand the choice made for k and setting it constant. It just seems a bit arbitrary to me.
 
It has been a while since I last did thermodynamics. But why may I not write this:

k \equiv -\frac{\frac{dp}{p}}{\frac{dV}{V}} = \frac{Vdp}{pdV}

and then, using that I have an isentropic process:

k = \frac{dH}{dU} = \frac{C_p}{C_v}.

If this is still valid, then k can not be constant in a real polyatomic gas. With varying temperature the number of "frozen" degrees of freedom in the gas will change!
 
Sorry for my absence! Although I am not familiar with your first expression, the second I am familiar with as a definition for k. That ratio is constant for an ideal gas which is what the reduction should go to, but if that is the case I cannot see how they would allow it to be considered constant in the first portion of the proof.
 
cmmcnamara said:
That ratio is constant for an ideal gas which is what the reduction should go to, but if that is the case I cannot see how they would allow it to be considered constant in the first portion of the proof.

Exactly.
 
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