Question regarding inverse functions

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The discussion centers on whether the inverse of the function f(x+3) is equal to f-1(x+3). It is argued that this statement is false because finding an inverse typically involves switching the x and y variables, which would not preserve the original function's form. An example is provided where f(x) = 2x + 3, leading to a calculation that shows f-1(x+3) does not equal the inverse of f(x+3). The conversation emphasizes the importance of testing with specific functions to clarify the relationship between a function and its inverse. Ultimately, the conclusion is that the proposed equality does not hold true in general.
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f(x) where x belongs to all real numbers
inverse: f-1(x), where x belongs to all real numbers

True or False:
The inverse of f(x+3) is f-1(x+3)

My ideas:
I think that it is false given that when you usually find the inverse of a function, you switch the x and y variables and solve for y again meaning that the inverse couldn't stay the same.
I figured since the domain and range of f(x) belong to all real numbers, possibly f(x) = x and then inputting f(x+3) = x+ 3
then y = x+3
then y = x - 3 but I am not really sure if that's right :s
 
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michellemich said:
f(x) where x belongs to all real numbers
inverse: f-1(x), where x belongs to all real numbers

True or False:
The inverse of f(x+3) is f-1(x+3)

My ideas:
I think that it is false given that when you usually find the inverse of a function, you switch the x and y variables and solve for y again meaning that the inverse couldn't stay the same.
I figured since the domain and range of f(x) belong to all real numbers, possibly f(x) = x and then inputting f(x+3) = x+ 3
then y = x+3
then y = x - 3 but I am not really sure if that's right :s

You are given that ##f## has an inverse ##f^{-1}##. What happens when you solve the equation ##y=f(x+3)## for ##x##?
 
Good Day michellemich!

If you are not sure of your answer, try some composition: let your original function be f(x)and your questionable inverse function be g(x)

Evaluate (f of g) and (g of f). If they undo each other, they are inverses.
 
If you want to know if this is true for all invertible functions, it is simple enough to find a counterexample.

If, say, f(x)= 2x+ 3, then f(x)= 3x- 2, then f^{-1}(x)= (x+ 2)/3. f(x+3)= 3(x+ 3)- 2= 3x+ 7. The inverse of that function is (x- 7)/3. Is that equal to f^{-1}(x+ 3)= (x+3+ 2)/3= (x+ 5)/3?
 
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